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In the old testament it says if a man has sex with a virgin then he has to marry her. Now what if it's the other way around? What if a woman who is not a virgin had sex with a man who is a virgin then would she have to marry him or would he have to marry her or does this only work when both are virgins or when the woman loses her virginity?
If she is not a virgin, then she is married (or should be) to the first she slept with, ergo her sleeping with him is adultery. We know what happens next...
Oh, well by today's laws it would depend upon a few things. Namely their ages and marital status. Since you are asking if they would have to marry, I'm assuming they are not married. As such, it fully depends upon their age. If they are both underage, then it depends upon the are they are living in but they might be charged with rape, and unless she is much older than he is, it will likely be him being charged for raping her. If he is an adult, that will definitely happen. If she is the only adult, then she might get a charge or a slap on the wrist (remember, a young boy having sex is lucky, a young girl having sex is abused
).
If she is not a virgin, then she is married (or should be) to the first she slept with, ergo her sleeping with him is adultery. We know what happens next...
If you look in the Hebrew, the word used does not mean woman. Girl or virgin are the best. In Deuteronomy 22, the word used is na'arah, which is a girl of about age 12 who has just begun puberty (which accounting for a change in biology is closer to age 9 now).
No, that isn't it. See, if that was the only problem, all God would have to do is say a virgin who is raped is still a virgin. They actually do that in the case of girls 3 and under who are raped (read the Talmud for more on that).
Just like back then they needed all the children they could get, but these days we don't, thus the passage condemning homosexuality shouldn't be directly applied today...
