So you cannot show where Paul says we are all descended from Adam and Eve.
You just reworded what Paul said and then pretended that Paul didn't say it.
As usual Mark, when you cannot back you claim up with scripture, you quote some like minded commentary who agrees with you. In this case it is an American Presbyterian denomination's interpretation of the Westminster Confession of Faith's interpretation of Paul's interpretation of Genesis 1-3, when neither Paul nor Genesis 1-3 say the entire human race being descended from Adam and Eve.
Every time the New Testament speaks of Genesis it speaks of it as historical. As usual, when the Scriptures don't say what you want them to mean you twist words around to make them fit your philosophy just as evolutionists twist the evidence to fit their philosophy:
He writes the same way in all his letters, speaking in them of these matters. His letters contain some things that are hard to understand, which ignorant and unstable people distort, as they do the other Scriptures, to their own destruction. II Peter 3:16
Your using a rhetorical question instead of a sound hermeneutic...as usual.
Of course apart from being bound by the Westminster Confession of faith's interpretation of creation rather than examining scripture for themselves, the PCA's biggest mistake is thinking Paul 'likewise handle Genesis 1-3 as real history' when Paul himself tells us he saw Adam as a figure of Christ Rom 5:14. Paul in fact handled Genesis 1-3 as allegory.
No he is not, that is a typology. The literal Adam prefigures Christ:
- Sin came as the result of, 'many died by the trespass of the one man' (Rom. 5:15),
- 'judgment followed one sin and brought condemnation' (Rom. 5:16),
- the trespass of the one man, death reigned through that one man
- (Rom. 5:17),
- 'just as the result of one trespass was condemnation for all men' (Rom. 5:18),
- 'through the disobedience of the one man the many were made sinners' (Rom. 5:19).
- how much more did God’s grace and the gift that came by the grace of the one man, Jesus Christ, overflow to the many! (Rom 5:15)
- but the gift followed many trespasses and brought justification. (Rom 5:16)
- how much more will those who receive God’s abundant provision of grace and of the gift of righteousness reign in life through the one man, Jesus Christ! (Rom 5:17)
- so also through the obedience of the one man the many will be made righteous. (Rom 5:19)
- so also grace might reign through righteousness to bring eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord. (Rom 5:21)
What it means it that Adam was a type of Christ, it is not saying that Adam is a figure of speech. You are twisting Paul's words. This kind of typology is common in the New Testament.
tupoi
- 1 Cor 10:6, here it means literal idolaters are examples of what not to do.
- 1 Cor 10:11, here it means literal people who murmured, same meaning.
- 1 Pe 5:3, here it means literal leaders of the church are examples not Lords.
tupon
- John 20:25, Here it means the literal print of the nail in Jesus hand.
- John 20:25, Here it means the same thing.
- Acts 7:44, Here it means a literal pattern.
- Acts 23:25, Here it means the manner in which a letter is literally written.
- Rom 6:17, Here it means a literal doctrine.
- Php 3:17, Here it means a literal Paul and his companions.
- 2 Th 3:9, Same meaning here.
- Titus 2:7, Here it means a literal pattern of good works.
- Heb 8:5, Here is means literal Christians.
tupoV
- Rom 5:14, Here it means a literal Adam
- 1 Ti 4:12 Here it means the literal Timothy be an example to others.
tupouV
- Acts 7:43, here it means a literal idol, that represents a pagan god.
- 1 Th 1:7, here it means that literal believers are to be examples to other believers.
Where is the word translated ever used as a figure of speech?
As usual you are twisting the Scriptures to mean things that are contrary to the intended meaning of the author. This is not how Biblical interpretation is done.
Interestingly, while the PCA do think that the entire human race is descended from Adam and Eve,unlike you they do not claim that Paul taught it. You are twisting their words just like you twisted Paul's
This is what they teach:
In 1 Corinthians 15:45-47, Paul goes further back than Gen 3 to the creation of Adam in Genesis 2:7. “So it is written: ‘The first man Adam became a living being’; the last Adam, a life-giving Spirit…The first man was of the dust of the earth, the second man from heaven.” Clearly he takes Gen 2:7 as real history. In the flow of his argument, Paul anchors the believer’s hope in the bodily resurrection in the parallel between Adam and Christ. The creation of Adam as an earthly living being is a divine pattern for the recreative action of Christ, the last Adam, in the resurrection of redeemed humanity. The link is clear: creation, specifically God’s special creative act in Gen 2:7, is the pattern for God’s supernatural act of resurrection/transformation of the believer. Paul argues in 1 Corinthians 15:45c that Gen 2:7 itself prescribes the glorified/resurrection bodies of believers as the fruit of the work of Christ, the last Adam.
Their understanding of the effect of Adam's sin and their interpretation of Paul's theology has nothing to do with Adam being forefather of the human race, but because he was covenantal head of the human race, which is completely consistent with Papias's point.
What can I say to that except yes it does, and no it's not.
You rproblem is you assume Paul interpreted the passages he quote historically and while he never mentioned anything about the entire human race being descended from Adam and Eve, or suggested any passages in Genesis should be interpreted that way, because you interpret Genesis this way, you assume Paul must have too. In other words you are reading your own ideas into Paul rather than basing them on anything Paul says himself.
No I'm not, Paul is clearly teaching a literal Adam. You take your own phrase and pretend that just because Paul doesn't say what you do word for word that he didn't teach the historicity of Genesis or a literal Adam.
You are not interpreting Genesis or Romans, you are twisting them to mean something that the authors never intended. Repeating the same error and supporting others who make the same error is no substitute for an honest exposition of the text.
The interpretation you are using did not exist before the advent of Darwinism. It only exists to accommodate Darwinian naturalistic assumptions not to understand what Paul says, in fact, you are twisting Paul's meaning around shamelessly.
He writes the same way in all his letters, speaking in them of these matters. His letters contain some things that are hard to understand, which ignorant and unstable people distort, as they do the other Scriptures, to their own destruction. II Peter 3:16
Have a nice day

Mark