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Who did away with the law?

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VictorC

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Actually everyone here could have saved themselves a lot of typing by answering the original question posted instead of rehashing the same old arguments.
The original question has been answered. We're patiently awaiting your acknowledgement.
When did christian churches stop teaching that the ten commandments were a christian code of conduct?
Perhaps you should change your question to when did the covenant from Mount Sinai become relegated to a mere moral code? And, why are you complaining about a move away from that doctrinal position which is more reliant on Thomas Aquinas and the Westminster Confession than it is Scripture?

We do often refer to the law that revealed sin to us, as it does indeed provide examples to educate us. But it isn't constrained to the ten commandments - Even 1 Timothy 5:18 quotes the law in Deuteronomy 25:4 "You shall not muzzle an ox while it treads out the grain" to provide a lesson that those employed in a work are due recognition of that work. The sabbath isn't mentioned at all, and even your Congregationalist background didn't acknowledge it. These lessons do not forget that the law was binding, and the new covenant does not place us back into the former covenant's jurisdiction.
 
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bugkiller

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A car is not a beast of burden. I used that analogy because the Jews of the time even with their very legalistic laws (150 on the sabbath alone) did not consider it a violation to use Roman roads on the sabbath. It refutes the contention that we violate the sabbath by using such things today.
So what are you contending? Do we use animals these days to do our work? No! What is the intention of the law (ten commandments)? Is it not that all work be stopped? If riding an ass was wrong under the ten commandments, how is riding on (in) a vehicle any different? A legalism invalidating the ten commandments that you uphold? I call this picking and choosing. What does the Bible say? Deut 28:1 Which one or part did it leave out? None! What does James 2:10 say? Doesn't Gal 3:10 say all the law? Gal 5:4 says that anyone who does the works of the law invalidates the work of the cross. There is no picking and choosing. At least I can't find it. Can you show it to me?
The second paragraph you posted seems little more than a personal attack with no valid reasonoings, therefore deserves no response.
I was discussing the law with an illustration, not you. I also am talking to some one and use the word you because I am speaking of something that is said. Someone has directed something to or at me, why can't I redirect it back? I think the rules say that you must be an adult (18 yrs old) to participate in these forums. So why are so many acting like their shoe size and being little? Do I need to put in a disqualifier statement for you to not take something personal? It seems to me that you push the law. Is my assumption wrong? Yes I am giving a personal invation on that basis. My mom said if the shoe fits wear it.
I was reffering to the original post of the thread, that prior to as early as 20 years ago the moral code was regarded as a standard of conduct by all christians. Only recently has the notion that it has no bearing on christian conduct today. The original post had nothing to do with the sabbath in particular but the moral law in general,it seems that debate over the law always focuses towards it. Perhaps because that is the only 1 of the ten people have contention with. I have no idea about your neighbors or what they believe. My only response to your assertion comes with 2 scriptures:

Rom 2:13 (For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified.
Rom 2:14 For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves:

Mat 5:19 Therefore, whoever relaxes one of these commandments, the least, and shall teach men so, he shall be called least in the kingdom of Heaven. But whoever does and teaches them, this one shall be called great in the kingdom of Heaven.
About your comments first. I agree and this is why I still am remain and have always been single. I refuse to give in to be one of the group. Hypocricy (mine or others) is a problem for me. I don't believe in do as I say and not as I do. I believe that I do as I say. Yes standards or very much taboo.

Now for your verse quotes. Are you not taking them out of context to prove your point that we are to be obedient to the law of Moses (which includes the ten commandments). The Romans reference does not say exclusively the ten commandments. When the law is spoken of by a Jew it is a single undivisible unit as illustrated by my referring to Deut 28:1, Gal 3;10, and James 2:10 above.

I need to ask why you seem to ignore Romans 6:14, 15, 10:4? For total understanding I must consider all scripture, not isolated verses.

The context for Mat 5:19 is under the law before the cross. Many have the problem understanding everything before the cross as old covenant because it is in the NT division of scripture. I sometimes wish there was a transitional designation for the Gospels. They more technically belong to the OT.

Just for you: Disclaimer - nothing I said above should be considered and attack on anyone. I am attempting to discuss the Bible not any person.

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winslow

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The original question has been answered. We're patiently awaiting your acknowledgement.

Perhaps you should change your question to when did the covenant from Mount Sinai become relegated to a mere moral code? And, why are you complaining about a move away from that doctrinal position which is more reliant on Thomas Aquinas and the Westminster Confession than it is Scripture?

We do often refer to the law that revealed sin to us, as it does indeed provide examples to educate us. But it isn't constrained to the ten commandments - Even 1 Timothy 5:18 quotes the law in Deuteronomy 25:4 "You shall not muzzle an ox while it treads out the grain" to provide a lesson that those employed in a work are due recognition of that work. The sabbath isn't mentioned at all, and even your Congregationalist background didn't acknowledge it. These lessons do not forget that the law was binding, and the new covenant does not place us back into the former covenant's jurisdiction.

If you don't know then why don't you just say you don't know? It is a plain simple fact that prior to at least the 70's the ten commandments were regarded as a standard of christian conduct by all christian churches.
If the moral law was non existant prior to Sinai then how can Joseph reffer to it in his rejection of Potiphers wife?

Regarding reference to my background as I stated I had friends in many different faiths, they ALL held that the ten commandments were a standard of christian conduct. So you are saying that christianity in it's entirety was ignorant of the truth?
 
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bugkiller

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yes, i agree with you frogster,as far as a teacher goes, you're one of the best?

anywho,it is clear that paul is talking about the mosaic law in gal 3. note the references to "works of the law" (from the greek ergon nomos) and his reference to the "book of the law" (you know, the part of the law that moses wrote, hence, mosaic law. ex 24:5,7)

ergon:
(a primary but obsolete word; to work); toil (as an effort or occupation); by implication an act:—deed, doing, labour, work.

nomos:
(to parcel out, especially food or grazing to animals); law (through the idea of prescriptive usage), generally (regulation), specifically (of Moses [including the volume]; also of the Gospel), or figuratively (a principle):—law.

now, let's back up from gal 3:24 to gal 3:19,

Galatians 3:19 ( NKJV ) 19What purpose then does the law serve? It was added because of transgressions, till the Seed should come to whom the promise was made; and it was appointed through angels by the hand of a mediator.

what purpose did the law serve? he actually answers this question in verse 24, but notice that the law was added because of transgressions. but what law or laws were being transgressed?

(but of course it couldn't have been the ten comandments)

remember?

Romans 4:15 ( NKJV ) 15because the law brings about wrath; for where there is no law there is no transgression.

since the law was added because of transgressions or sin, there had to be a law that existed so that "the law" could be addded!

just too bad that we don't know what law or laws that was being transgressed, a pure shame.

well, we do know it wasn't the mosaic law.

also notice that "the law" was added until! until what?
...till the Seed should come!

so, this tells us that the law was to be added but that it would have a definite duration!

that's where:

Galatians 3:23-25 ( NKJV ) 23But before faith came, we were kept under guard by the law, kept for the faith which would afterward be revealed. 24Therefore the law was our tutor to bring us to Christ, that we might be justified by faith. 25But after faith has come, we are no longer under a tutor.

comes into play.

the mosaic law fullfiled it purpose, came 430 years after abraham and taught the COI the habit of obedience.
but verse 25 says that we are no longer under a tutor, why?

because:

Daniel 9:27 ( NKJV ) 27 Then he shall confirm a covenant with many for one week;
But in the middle of the week (and Christ literaly died on wednesday)
He shall bring an end to sacrifice and offering.
And on the wing of abominations shall be one who makes desolate,
Even until the consummation, which is determined,
Is poured out on the desolate.”

so, it's not that some like the strict pedagogue, rather, some understand what its purpose was.

mosaic law, and not the ten commandments, was added because of gal 3:19, and served its purpose per gal 3:24!
I would love for you to show us exactly how each of the ten commandments were enforce in the garden.

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bugkiller

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Ok, but no mater how many times I think about it the answer is still the same.
You can believe it if you want but it's still not true.
Pure unadulterated conjecture and personal opinion with no support.
Yes some do frequent this site.
I'm not sure, do I detect a twinge of guilt in there? And as far as flaming goes I think you're a flming too.
No, absolutely not. I am trying to get you to identify who it is you are really talking about. How is asking you to state what you really mean by your statements flaming? I am way curious. I am asking about your statements and nothing more. I am very interested in the truth. Instead of trying to be nice and open: folks like you are requiring me to use that little red button. I just want the truth to be known in what is said.


Now really what was your intent by those statements? Don't play dumb. Why can't you play with your cards face up? I am not trying to embarass you or call you out.

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winslow

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I need to ask why you seem to ignore Romans 6:14, 15, 10:4? For total understanding I must consider all scripture, not isolated verses.

The context for Mat 5:19 is under the law before the cross. Many have the problem understanding everything before the cross as old covenant because it is in the NT division of scripture. I sometimes wish there was a transitional designation for the Gospels. They more technically belong to the OT.

Just for you: Disclaimer - nothing I said above should be considered and attack on anyone. I am attempting to discuss the Bible not any person.

bugkiller
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Romans 6:14

Romans 6:14
Barnes:
For sin ... - The propensity or inclination to sin.
Shall not have dominion - Shall not reign, Rom_5:12; Rom_6:6. This implies that sin ought not to have this dominion; and it also expresses the conviction of the apostle that it would not have this rule over Christians.
For we are not under law - We who are Christians are not subject to that law where sin is excited, and where it rages unsubdued. But it may be asked here, What is meant by this declaration? Does it mean that Christians are absolved from all the obligations of the law? I answer,
(1) The apostle does not affirm that Christians are not bound to obey the moral law. The whole scope of his reasoning shows that he maintains that they are. The whole structure of Christianity supposes the same thing; compare Mat_5:17-19.
(2) the apostle means to say that Christians are not under the law as legalists, or as attempting to be justified by it. They seek a different plan of justification altogether: and they do not attempt to be justified by their own obedience. The Jews did; they do not.
(3) it is implied here that the effect of an attempt to be justified by the Law was not to subdue sins, but to excite them and to lead to indulgence in them.
Justification by works would destroy no sin, would check no evil propensity, but would leave a man to all the ravages and riotings of unsubdued passion. If, therefore, the apostle had maintained that people were justified by works, he could not have consistently exhorted them to abandon their sins. He would have had no powerful motives by which to urge it; for the scheme would not lead to it. But he here says that the Christian was seeking justification on a plan which contemplated and which accomplished the destruction of sin; and he therefore infers that sin should not have dominion over them.
But under grace - Under a scheme of mercy, the design and tendency of which is to subdue sin, and destroy it.

Matthew Henry:
He argues from the precious promises and privileges of the new covenant, Rom_6:14. It might be objected that we cannot conquer and subdue sin, it is unavoidably too hard for us: “No,” says he, “you wrestle with an enemy that may be dealt with and subdued, if you will but keep your ground and stand to your arms; it is an enemy that is already foiled and baffled; there is strength laid up in the covenant of grace for your assistance, if you will but use it. Sin shall not have dominion.” God's promises to us are more powerful and effectual for the mortifying of sin than our promises to God. Sin may struggle in a believer, and may create him a great deal of trouble, but it shall not have dominion; it may vex him, but shall not rule over him.

Clarke:
Sin shall not have dominion over you - God delivers you from it; and if you again become subject to it, it will be the effect of your own choice or negligence.
Ye are not under the law - That law which exacts obedience, without giving power to obey; that condemns every transgression and every unholy thought without providing for the extirpation of evil or the pardon of sin.
But under grace - Ye are under the merciful and beneficent dispensation of the Gospel, that, although it requires the strictest conformity to the will of God, affords sufficient power to be thus conformed; and, in the death of Christ, has provided pardon for all that is past, and grace to help in every time of need.

Regarding Matthew 5:19 your argument that it was reffering to only applicable to before the cross is unfounded and lacks any scriptural endorsement. The New testament is not part of the Old testament, that is a view you seem to have invented to validate your views.
 
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VictorC

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If you don't know then why don't you just say you don't know?
I find your denial very discomforting.
It is a plain simple fact that prior to at least the 70's the ten commandments were regarded as a standard of christian conduct by all christian churches.
The absence of the sabbath in all Christian churches makes this statement patently absurd, and prior to 400 years ago the relegation of the Sinai Covenant to a moral guide was itself new. Your historical perception is horribly short-sighted.
If the moral law was non existant prior to Sinai then how can Joseph reffer to it in his rejection of Potiphers wife?
There is no "if", for you have never established any moral law.
Regarding reference to my background as I stated I had friends in many different faiths, they ALL held that the ten commandments were a standard of christian conduct. So you are saying that christianity in it's entirety was ignorant of the truth?
Not at all.
I'm merely suggesting you don't know what the truth is, and you aren't forthright in responding to posts offered to you that might help lead you toward the goal you feign desire for.
 
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Look Up

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Hi Winslow!

I am pretty sure I am not able to answer your question very well, but I can suggest a few possibilities.

Something called "Dispensational Theology" going back to Irishman J.N. Darby and later C.I. Scofield in the 19th and early 20th centuries taught that the whole law, and hence the ten commandments, were only for Jews under the old dispensation and not for the church--or at least some in the camp would say so as I recall. Dallas Theological Seminary is associated with this camp. In fairness, others in the camp would adhere to the decalogue because they are repeated in the New Testament, but it depends on how far the dispensationalism is taken. Some say only the pastoral epistles and a little more are for the "church dispensation" today.

In other words, it is possible that in recent decades you may have observed some influence of that theological camp in the circles of which you are aware. It may, for example, have had some influence in the mega-church movement in recent decades--or so I have sensed. I am pretty sure it has made inroads to a variety of Baptist circles, although I am not sure about the SBC.

Then there is the possibility that post-modernism or the movement to "be relevant" mutes the proclamation of moral absolutes or that in the church, "garden variety" violations of prohibitions on adultery, theft, deceit and idolatry compromises the preaching. Polls suggest the previous moral differences (using parameters relevant to at least some of the ten commandments) between the church and the (US) world have shrunk to zero.

Note also that the recent "emergent (or emerging) church" generally downplays universally applicable truth in favor of communal tradition (e.g., at Fuller Theological Seminary in CA). And at the heart of the popular New Pauline Perspectives is an undermining of confidence in the final authority of Scriptures, whatever else it may entail.

Or perhaps you are witnessing across generations the fuller fruit of the Supreme Court decisions of the early 1960s (not to mention the Alabama Justice Roy Moore case circa 2003) which marginalized the ten commandments to the shrinking private sector. With prayer out of public schools, the church has entrusted its youth to the catechisms of the world; a generation later we see students who have become parents. Attrition of teenagers in the church has reached 80%, according to some polls, by the time the kids reach their 20s. They are leaving in droves.

In any case the ten commandments in my own church and denomination still features prominently as has been true for centuries, and I cannot imagine Roman Catholicism has abandoned the ten commandments officially--but someone else can speak to that.
 
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winslow

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I find your denial very discomforting.

The absence of the sabbath in all Christian churches makes this statement patently absurd, and prior to 400 years ago the relegation of the Sinai Covenant to a moral guide was itself new. Your historical perception is horribly short-sighted.

There is no "if", for you have never established any moral law.

Not at all.
I'm merely suggesting you don't know what the truth is, and you aren't forthright in responding to posts offered to you that might help lead you toward the goal you feign desire for.


I guess you have never heard of the term christian sabbath. It is the commonly held belief that the sabbath was changed from saturday to sunday.

The church has always (until recently) held that the Lord has a standard of conduct for professed believers as revealed in scripture. This standard of conduct is included in the law of moses but it isn't in itself the law of moses. There are eternal motral concepts that transcend time and different cultures. That is why Joseph recognized that to lie with Potiphers wife was a sin against the Lord, even though the law had not yet been given, meaning it was not yet put into a code.
At sinai the moral precepts that had formerly been revealed to the ancestors of the Israelites were codified. Prior to entering Egypt the Israelites were a tribe, not more that a large family. When they came out of Egypt they numbered over a million.

Scripture itself establishes the existance of a moral law.

Any post offered do not address the question I asked. You can not get around the simple fact that until fairly recently all christian churches upheld the ten commandments as a standard of conduct for the christian. Rehashing the same arguments of the last 20-30 years doesn't address this basic question. As I said earlier their are many examples of this but I only referenced a coulple to get my point across. We can go through each omne individually if you like but in each case it will be revealed that until recently the ten commandments were upheld as a standard of christian conduct, but not a path to justification.
 
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Pythons

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The question was asked in the O.P. , "who did away with the law"?

If, as Seventh day Adventists maintain, that the 7th day Sabbath is the center of the law...
...Then the SDA's did away with the law & it's easily proven.

The Seventh day Adventist Church is the direct outgrowth of the Millerite movement...
...William Miller predicted that Christ would come back 1st in 1843 then again in 1844.

William Miller interpreted key passages in the Book of Daniel and Revelation in support of his premise...
...And claimed the prophetic schema was tied together ( validated ) by Christ being killed in 31 A.D. at the Jewish Passover.

William Miller knew that according to the Gregorian Calendar Passover in 31 A.D. did not coincide with a Friday, Sat, Sun...
...So Miller used a calendar system which would allow the Sabbath to fall at the needed time.

Jesus did not return to earth at Miller's predicted time & Miller, realizing his error, rejected his prophetic schema...
...The SDA's however did not and instead said Miller had the right time but wrong event.

The I.J. doctrine of the SDA's is ONLY supported by the specific time criteria of Millers prophetic schema...
...& Miller's prophetic code REQUIRES that Christ died at Passover in 31 A.D.
...Which also requires that Nisan 14 be the day of preporation / Sabbath.
...Problem is that according to a Gregorian Calendar it was Tue/ Wed.


The Jewish Liturgical month was/ is Lunar and Passover was the 14th day of Nisan...
...Nisan coincides with March or April on a Gregorian Calendar.


So there ya go. The SDA's have changed "the law and times"....
...Or said in another way they "have thought to changed times and laws".
 
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winslow

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Rom 10:4 For Christ is the end of Law for righteousness to everyone that believes.


From a primary word τέλλω tellō (to set out for a definite point or goal); properly the point aimed at as a limit, that is, (by implication) the conclusion of an act or state (termination [literally, figuratively or indefinitely], result [immediate, ultimate or prophetic], purpose); specifically an impost or levy (as paid): - + continual, custom, end (-ing), finally, uttermost.

To say that Crist ended the law contradicts scripture. To say that He is the what the law aimed at is scxriptural.

Does the notion that the believer is to be Christlike make any sense to you? To be Christlike is what the christian aims at. Christ perfecly personified the meaning and intent of the law.
 
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Deut 5:29

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Rom 10:4 For Christ is the end of Law for righteousness to everyone that believes.


From a primary word τέλλω tellō (to set out for a definite point or goal); properly the point aimed at as a limit, that is, (by implication) the conclusion of an act or state (termination [literally, figuratively or indefinitely], result [immediate, ultimate or prophetic], purpose); specifically an impost or levy (as paid): - + continual, custom, end (-ing), finally, uttermost.

To say that Crist ended the law contradicts scripture. To say that He is the what the law aimed at is scxriptural.

Does the notion that the believer is to be Christlike make any sense to you? To be Christlike is what the christian aims at. Christ perfecly personified the meaning and intent of the law.

TRUE
 
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Pythons

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Rom 10:4 For Christ is the end of Law for righteousness to everyone that believes.


From a primary word τέλλω tellō (to set out for a definite point or goal); properly the point aimed at as a limit, that is, (by implication) the conclusion of an act or state (termination [literally, figuratively or indefinitely], result [immediate, ultimate or prophetic], purpose); specifically an impost or levy (as paid): - + continual, custom, end (-ing), finally, uttermost.

To say that Crist ended the law contradicts scripture. To say that He is the what the law aimed at is scxriptural.

Does the notion that the believer is to be Christlike make any sense to you? To be Christlike is what the christian aims at. Christ perfecly personified the meaning and intent of the law.

Christ came to "fulfill" the law and prophets...
...& fulfill means to FILL FULL.

You have it backwards Winslow, ONLY Christ could fill full the law...
...& the meaning and intent of that law was Christ was the ONLY one who could.

You've reduced it to Christ being our example instead of our Sacrifice...
...And have ignored that SDA's thought to change times and laws by moving the Sabbath day.
 
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winslow

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Hi Winslow!

I am pretty sure I am not able to answer your question very well, but I can suggest a few possibilities.

Something called "Dispensational Theology" going back to Irishman J.N. Darby and later C.I. Scofield in the 19th and early 20th centuries taught that the whole law, and hence the ten commandments, were only for Jews under the old dispensation and not for the church--or at least some in the camp would say so as I recall. Dallas Theological Seminary is associated with this camp. In fairness, others in the camp would adhere to the decalogue because they are repeated in the New Testament, but it depends on how far the dispensationalism is taken. Some say only the pastoral epistles and a little more are for the "church dispensation" today.

In other words, it is possible that in recent decades you may have observed some influence of that theological camp in the circles of which you are aware. It may, for example, have had some influence in the mega-church movement in recent decades--or so I have sensed. I am pretty sure it has made inroads to a variety of Baptist circles, although I am not sure about the SBC.

Then there is the possibility that post-modernism or the movement to "be relevant" mutes the proclamation of moral absolutes or that in the church, "garden variety" violations of prohibitions on adultery, theft, deceit and idolatry compromises the preaching. Polls suggest the previous moral differences (using parameters relevant to at least some of the ten commandments) between the church and the (US) world have shrunk to zero.

Note also that the recent "emergent (or emerging) church" generally downplays universally applicable truth in favor of communal tradition (e.g., at Fuller Theological Seminary in CA). And at the heart of the popular New Pauline Perspectives is an undermining of confidence in the final authority of Scriptures, whatever else it may entail.

Or perhaps you are witnessing across generations the fuller fruit of the Supreme Court decisions of the early 1960s (not to mention the Alabama Justice Roy Moore case circa 2003) which marginalized the ten commandments to the shrinking private sector. With prayer out of public schools, the church has entrusted its youth to the catechisms of the world; a generation later we see students who have become parents. Attrition of teenagers in the church has reached 80%, according to some polls, by the time the kids reach their 20s. They are leaving in droves.

In any case the ten commandments in my own church and denomination still features prominently as has been true for centuries, and I cannot imagine Roman Catholicism has abandoned the ten commandments officially--but someone else can speak to that.

Thank you for your response, it addresses the initial question directly and contains very good points for consideration..
 
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Hentenza

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Rom 10:4 For Christ is the end of Law for righteousness to everyone that believes.


From a primary word τέλλω tellō (to set out for a definite point or goal); properly the point aimed at as a limit, that is, (by implication) the conclusion of an act or state (termination [literally, figuratively or indefinitely], result [immediate, ultimate or prophetic], purpose); specifically an impost or levy (as paid): - + continual, custom, end (-ing), finally, uttermost.

To say that Crist ended the law contradicts scripture. To say that He is the what the law aimed at is scxriptural.

Does the notion that the believer is to be Christlike make any sense to you? To be Christlike is what the christian aims at. Christ perfecly personified the meaning and intent of the law.

You are commenting only based on the portion of the definition that agrees with you, however, you ignore the rest of the definition. I highlighted the rest of it.

From a primary word τέλλω tellō (to set out for a definite point or goal); properly the point aimed at as a limit, that is, (by implication) the conclusion of an act or state (termination [literally, figuratively or indefinitely], result [immediate, ultimate or prophetic], purpose); specifically an impost or levy (as paid): - + continual, custom, end (-ing), finally, uttermost

The definition points to a fulfillment and termination since the designed has been accomplished and no longer needed. Paul makes clear his point in Romans 7.

1Or do you not know, brethren (for I am speaking to those who know the law), that the law has jurisdiction over a person as long as he lives? 2For the married woman is bound by law to her husband while he is living; but if her husband dies, she is released from the law concerning the husband.
3So then, if while her husband is living she is joined to another man, she shall be called an adulteress; but if her husband dies, she is free from the law, so that she is not an adulteress though she is joined to another man.
4Therefore, my brethren, you also were made to die to the Law through the body of Christ, so that you might be joined to another, to Him who was raised from the dead, in order that we might bear fruit for God.



The law has "died' so that we are free to join with Christ.
 
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winslow

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Christ came to "fulfill" the law and prophets...
...& fulfill means to FILL FULL.

You have it backwards Winslow, ONLY Christ could fill full the law...
...& the meaning and intent of that law was Christ was the ONLY one who could.

You've reduced it to Christ being our example instead of our Sacrifice...
...And have ignored that SDA's thought to change times and laws by moving the Sabbath day.

No Christ is both the sacrifice and our example. I agree He fill fulled the law. As I said His life perfecly personified the meaning and intent of the law.

Are you disagreeing that the aim of the christian is to be Christlike?
 
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Pythons

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No Christ is both the sacrifice and our example. I agree He fill fulled the law. As I said His life perfecly personified the meaning and intent of the law.

Are you disagreeing that the aim of the christian is to be Christlike?

No, I'm disagreeing that the aim of the Christian is to be "Christ"...
...And there is a whale of difference between Christlike and Christ.

St Paul, St John & the total of heavy-weight good guys mentioned in Scripture did their best to be Christlike...
...Not one of them claimed to be Christ.

In speaking of the law Ellen White explicitly said that Christ could have sinned & lost His Salvation...
...And had this happened Ellen said "God" would have killed Christ, forever!

The above is how you are coming at this subject and herein lies the massive difference.
 
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VictorC

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I guess you have never heard of the term christian sabbath. It is the commonly held belief that the sabbath was changed from saturday to sunday.
Sure, I've heard of it - and if I were to search the Catholic Catechism I might even find a claim that the Catholic Church changed the sabbath to Sunday. But in my entire tenure on this forum, I have yet to have anyone explain to me how the Catholic church was able to change the ordinance driving the sabbath approximately 300 years after this component of the first covenant mediated in the hands of Moses was taken away by God. As Hebrews 10:9 offers as a summary, "He takes away the first that He may establish the second". The "He" in this verse refers to Jesus Christ, and the "first" was the covenant ordained at Mount Sinai, which was taken away because it is incompatible with the new covenant in the Blood of Christ.

That I have heard of the concept certainly doesn't add any credibility to it.

Hebrews 4 describes our entrance into God's eternal rest that those who were given the sabbath had not attained the entire 1500 year history the sabbath existed. It is "that" rest that is affirmed by Christianity; the permanent reality that has replaced the periodic shadow of God's rest.
The church has always (until recently) held that the Lord has a standard of conduct for professed believers as revealed in scripture. This standard of conduct is included in the law of moses but it isn't in itself the law of moses. There are eternal motral concepts that transcend time and different cultures. That is why Joseph recognized that to lie with Potiphers wife was a sin against the Lord, even though the law had not yet been given, meaning it was not yet put into a code.
So let me get this straight - before the law existed, the law existed. Would you care to document this law that existed before it did?
At sinai the moral precepts that had formerly been revealed to the ancestors of the Israelites were codified. Prior to entering Egypt the Israelites were a tribe, not more that a large family. When they came out of Egypt they numbered over a million.
Your moniker says "SDA" next to your name, so please allow me to show you where you get this bizarre idea. It comes from Ellen White's Desire of Ages, one of the worst theological works showing abject lack of inspiration that I have ever quoted from:
The yoke that binds to service is the law of God. The great law of love revealed in Eden, proclaimed upon Sinai, and in the new covenant written in the heart, is that which binds the human worker to the will of God. If we were left to follow our own inclinations, to go just where our will would lead us, we should fall into Satan's ranks and become possessors of his attributes. Therefore God confines us to His will, which is high, and noble, and elevating. He desires that we shall patiently and wisely take up the duties of service. The yoke of service Christ Himself has borne in humanity. He said, "I delight to do Thy will, O My God: yea, Thy law is within My heart." Ps. 40:8. "I came down from heaven, not to do Mine own will, but the will of Him that sent Me." John 6:38. Love for God, zeal for His glory, and love for fallen humanity, brought Jesus to earth to suffer and to die. This was the controlling power of His life. This principle He bids us adopt. {DA 329.3}
What Ellen White calls the "law of love" the Apostle Paul calls the "ministry of death, written and engraved on stones" in 2 Corinthians 3:7. Some love Ellen has, deep affection for condemnation under the law that imputes sin to the transgressor as long as it retained jurisdiction. What Ellen claimed was revealed in Eden, Moses testified didn't exist prior to his own generation in Deuteronomy 5:2-3. What Ellen claims was written into the hearts was disqualified by Jeremiah 31:32 and Hebrews 8:9 specifying that God's "My law" was not according to the covenant made at Mount Sinai. Romans 2:15 shows that the Gentiles already had the workings of the law written into their hearts prior to the new covenant, showing that Ellen's idea of the first covenant moving location making it "new" was utter nonsense. Besides, when were the Gentiles members of Israel or Judah? And, to top off insult with abject injury, Ellen claims Jesus was bound to the law, when Jesus taught Peter that the King Who gave the law is naturally sovereign to His own created law, and enjoys natural immunity to it (Matthew 17:24-26).

Basic fact: Moses testimony regarding the origin of the ten commandments in Deuteronomy 5 refutes the thesis you garnered from uninspired sources.
Scripture itself establishes the existance of a moral law.
But you can't seem to support Ellen's nonsense from Scripture. I rest my case.
Any post offered do not address the question I asked. You can not get around the simple fact that until fairly recently all christian churches upheld the ten commandments as a standard of conduct for the christian.
And this a claim you keep returning to, even after it has been shown to be faulty based on a horribly short rendition of history.
Rehashing the same arguments of the last 20-30 years doesn't address this basic question. As I said earlier their are many examples of this but I only referenced a coulple to get my point across. We can go through each omne individually if you like but in each case it will be revealed that until recently the ten commandments were upheld as a standard of christian conduct, but not a path to justification.
Shall I start bumping up my posts for you? These aren't arguments that became new 20-30 years ago. They were presented 2000 years ago, and your neo-non-inspired SDA theology is failing to take the original Biblical definition of the ten commandments as the covenant from Mount Sinai (that one is actually 3500 years old), and the instruction to cast off the bondwoman defined as the covenant from Mount Sinai (Galatians 4:24-30) appears to have been relegated to a non-moral obligation by you.
 
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Hentenza

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The old sinful nature has died, been crucified with Christ.

The Law has died. We no longer need a tutor to lead us to Christ.
 
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