TertiusC
Regular Member
You are right- I am not willing to discuss this at all. I know I am right, and if you have a problem with that you can always come to your senses and agree with me. "Food and drink" in the context of Romans 14 is clearly a reference to kashrus alongside trief, and thus is obviously a reference within Torah discussion, so there is no misquoting there.
I don't think you or anyone on this forum is an authority on Torah observance. I know for a fact that every MJ I have ever met picks and chooses what he wants out the Torah and then throws it in the face of the Gentiles as if not doing it "their" way makes them sinners or lesser Christians. To the Jew, the irony is amazing, actually.
Look, every man and his dog who has read the basics of the Christian faith knows the difference between justification and sanctification, so your words are somewhat wasted here.
The point is that you do not heed your own teaching. If a man does not lay Teffilin, clearly commanded in the Torah, is he a sinner? Or, if he rejects circumcision, also commanded in the Torah, is he a sinner? What is the punishment of such sin?
To take it to the obvious- if a Gentile does not keep any of the Moedim given to Israel alone is he a sinner or not? If you say yes, then you must say that such people are under God's wrath and deserve His punishment. If you say no, then you are picking and choosing what parts of the Torah are binding and which parts are not.
The Torah says:
ויאמר אלהם שׂימו לבבכם לכל־הדברים אשׁר אנכי מעיד בכם היום אשׁר תצום את־בניכם לשׁמר לעשׂות את־כל־דברי התורה הזאת׃
This is affirmed in the Talmud also in many places (I will give references if you wish)
And on this the Apostles agree (see James 2:10 and Gal. 5:3, coupled with the quotes you ignored earlier as "misquotes") Because of this unbreakable unity of all the mitzvot one cannot possibly go about telling Gentiles to be "Torah observant", as Paul and James carefully pointed out- and they were in keeping with the Torah itself. To do so looks ridiculous and is a clear misunderstanding of the Torah. It is forbidden in the New Covenant. The Law of Messiah is clearly taught in the NT- and this law (which was previously revealed in the Torah, yet clarified by the unbreakable and supreme authority of the Messiah) is binding on all mankind.
It is sad that you possess knowledge far reaching, enabling great debate, yet you are unwilling to hear anything.
I would like to reply to everything that you said, I'm not defeated by your arguments. But since you will not listen, what is the point?
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