Is SOLO Scriptura Scriptural?

[Montalban]

Yes, and the canon was written by the time the last apostle died, no longer needing the oral word. I think you run into a problem when you use the ECF's fallible interpretation of the infallible word of God and call it co-authoritative.

Where's it say this, in scripture?

You didn't answer the first time. Who's holy Tradition is the correct one?

You need to get some facts straight. I asked my question FIRST. You then came in quoting me asking that of another poster and asked me which traditions.

 

[Hentenza]

Where's it say this, in scripture?

The canon is closed. Is it not? The last apostle died, did he not? There can not be any other apostles after John since all apostles where eye witnesses of Christ, therefore, no additional authoritative oral teachings can be apostolic, is it not?

You need to get some facts straight. I asked my question FIRST. You then came in quoting me asking that of another poster and asked me which traditions.

In other words, you don't have an answer. Got it.

 

[Fireinfolding]

I cited it in the post above. People can check the context for themselves.

Can you show me where in scripture it says to only use scripture?

Heres some scripture...

2Titus 1:13 All **scripture** is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for **correction**, for instruction in righteousness.

A correction found in scripture is shown here....

Prov 30:6 Add thou **not** unto **his words**, lest he reprove thee, and thou be FOUND **A LIAR**.

So they would be found liars on the above and below found them so

Rev 2:2...and thou hast **tried them** which **say** they are apostles, and are not, and hast **FOUND THEM LIARS**

Paul said, God true and every man a liar in the context of ones sayings

Romans 3:4.... let **GOD BE TRUE**, but EVERY MAN **A LIAR**; as it is written, That thou mightest ~be justified~ IN ~thy sayings~, and mightest **overcome** when thou art judged.

Because Paul says we are to prove all things...Thus the bereans

Acts 17:7 These were **more noble** than those in Thessalonica, in that they received the word with all readiness of mind, and searched the scriptures daily, **whether those things were so**.

Even though

1Thes 2:13 For this cause also thank we God without ceasing, because, when ye received the word of God which ye heard of us, ye received it not as the word of men, but as it is in truth, the word of God, which effectually worketh also in you that believe.



Word of men, or saying things as a man is adressed here...

1Cr 9:8 SAY I these things AS A MAN? or saith not **the law**the same also?

Was Paul saying that because he knew this?

Isaiah 8:20 TO **the law** and TO **the testimony** ~IF~ they SPEAK NOT according to this word, it is **because** there is **no light** in them.

Because it does say this... (not true?)

Jerm 17:5 Thus saith the LORD; Cursed be the man that trusteth IN MAN, and maketh flesh his arm, and whose heart departeth from the LORD.

Jerm 17:17 Blessed is the man that trusteth in **THE LORD**

Again, the Holy scriptures which are the words of God

2Titus 3:15 And that from a child thou hast known the holy scriptures, which are able to**make thee wise** UNTO salvation **through faith** which is in Christ Jesus.

Because as Jesus said, "the scriptures are they which testify of me"

So the apostles exhort us where our faith should not stand here...

1Cr 2:5 That your faith should not stand in the wisdom of men, but in the power of God. (which is Christ)

The Lord is to be ones trust in contrast to turning aside to lies

Psalm 40:4 Blessed is that man that maketh the LORD his trust, and respecteth not the proud, nor such as turn aside to lies.

The anointing of the Lord is truth and no lie (even as His words are words of truth and no lie) correct?

1John 2:27 But the anointing which ye have received of him abideth in you, and ye need not that any man teach you: but as the same anointing teacheth you of all things, and is truth, and is no lie, and even as it hath taught you, ye shall abide in him.

And so its better to trust in the LORD (Him and His words) then man and his correct?

Psalm 118:8 It is better to trust in the LORD than to put confidence in man.


Ecc 12:10 The preacher sought to find out **acceptable words** and that which was written was upright, even words of truth.

Which words were they to speak and hear?

Ezek 2:7 And thou shalt speak my words unto them, whether they will hear, or whether they will forbear: for they are most rebellious.

Who hears them and who does not?

John 8:47 He that is of God heareth **God's words**: ye therefore hear them not, because ye are not of God.

John 3:34 For he whom God hath sent speaketh **the words of God**: for God giveth not the Spirit by measure unto him.


It also says here...

Prov 1:23 Turn you AT **my reproof** behold ((( I will pour out my spirit unto you))), I will make known ~my words~ to you.

But that is scripture again, because all scripture is for reproof

2Titus 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, **for reproof**, for correction, for instruction in righteousness

And that the man of God may be both perfect and furnished unto good works correct?

2Titus 3:17 That the man of God **may be perfect** throughly **furnished unto** all good works.

His words (the scriptures) are for our instruction.

His words (the scriptures) **fully equip** the man of God.

This isnt good

Psalm 50:17 Seeing thou hatest *instruction*, and casteth MY WORDS **behind thee**.

Nor this...

Jerm 35:13... Will ye not receive ~instruction~ to **hearken to** MY WORDS? saith the LORD.

Transgression is noted as it pertains to not abiding in the doctrine of Christ

2John 1:9 Whosoever ~transgresseth~, and abideth not IN the doctrine of Christ, hath not God. He that abideth IN the doctrine of Christ, he hath **both** the Father and the Son.

Because...

John 7:16-17 Jesus answered them, and said, MY doctrine is NOT MINE, but **HIS** that sent me. If any man will do his will, he shall **know of** the doctrine, whether it be of God, or whether I speak of myself.

John 15:7 If ye abide IN **ME**, and **my words** abide IN **YOU** ye shall ask what ye will, and it shall be done unto you.

He who loveth him not pertains to not keeping his sayings correct?

John 14:24 He that loveth me not keepeth not my sayings: and the word which ye hear is not mine, but the Father's which sent me.

By the same God would use the above to actually prove them in the OT to see (even as Jesus confirmed) them who loved Him.

Is there something other to abide in over Him and His words you'd like to enlighten me on?

 

[Montalban]

The canon is closed. Is it not?

Of the Bible. Yes. But the church lives now

But again, instead of answering me you choose to ask another question

In other words, you don't have an answer. Got it.

I asked first. Instead of you answering you chose to ask me something else.

Not only are you wrong about who asked whom first, you choose to try and lay this back on my feet

 

[Montalban]

Heres some scripture...

As I said you mix two different concepts

"Scripture is inspired by God"

and

"Scripture is the only thing inspired by God"

You choose to evidence the first to prove the second.

 

[Hentenza]

You said:

That which Paul approved of

I answered and asked:

Paul wrote down those traditions that he approved. Who's unwritten "T"radition is the holy Tradition?

You answered and accused me of asking a question without answering you, however, I did answer you.

He doesn't say that. He says to keep to both.

Now I praise you, brethren, that you remember me in all things and keep the traditions as I delivered them to you (I Corinthians 11:2)

“Therefore, brethren, stand fast and hold the traditions which you were taught, whether by word or by our epistle” (II Thessalonians 2:15)

Note the word 'or'


So you think that instead of answering my question, it's best instead to ask me something instead?

Of the Bible. Yes. But the church lives now

But again, instead of answering me you choose to ask another question


I asked first. Instead of you answering you chose to ask me something else.

Not only are you wrong about who asked whom first, you choose to try and lay this back on my feet

It is at your feet. I am not the one claiming that tradition and scripture are co-authoritative.

 

[Fireinfolding]

As I said you mix two different concepts

"Scripture is inspired by God"

and

"Scripture is the only thing inspired by God"

You choose to evidence the first to prove the second.

What did God inspire that you want me to see that you feel his words alone are not sufficient for us?

Would his words contradict what is somehow inspired outside of themselves?

 

[Montalban]

You said:

You've not shown where scripture says that only scripture should be used

Your post #372 you ask me your question - quoting me asking another my question.

You didn't answer me then. You went ahead and asked your own.

You've not answered me yet. At best you reply asking me more questions



On which tradition... is off-topic, anyway

 

[Montalban]

What did God inspire that you want me to see that you feel his words alone are not sufficient for us?

Would his words contradict what is somehow inspired outside of themselves?

Where does it say that only his words written in the Bible are all sufficient?

 

[Hentenza]

The canon is closed. Is it not? The last apostle died, did he not? There can not be any other apostles after John since all apostles where eye witnesses of Christ, therefore, no additional authoritative oral teachings can be apostolic, is it not?

Of the Bible. Yes. But the church lives now

<snip>

The church does indeed lives, however, it lives by the word of God not by the word of man.

You only attempted to answer my first question from my previous post (I quoted it above). Please address the other 2.

 

[Fireinfolding]

Where does it say that only his words written in the Bible are all sufficient?

Are you implying Gods words cannot be trusted and they cannot fully equip the man of God?

What in regards to Gods words is not sufficient to you?

 

[Montalban]

Are you implying Gods words cannot be trusted and they cannot fully equip the man of God?

What in regards to Gods words is not sufficient to you?

I'm saying that I don't believe God's words are found only in the Bible

 

[Montalban]

The church does indeed lives, however, it lives by the word of God not by the word of man.

You only attempted to answer my first question from my previous post (I quoted it above). Please address the other 2.

Show me where scriptures say we should only use scriptures

 

[Fireinfolding]

I'm saying that I don't believe God's words are found only in the Bible

Ofcourse not Montalban they are upon the lips of those who speak them as well, I dont disagree with that, even scripture confirms that too right?

 

[Montalban]

Ofcourse not Montalban they are upon the lips of those who speak them as well, I dont disagree with that, even scripture confirms that too right?

Therefore I'm not arguing about the 'sufficiency' of God's Word, but of the Bible where you and another believe that one needs only the Bible.

And scripture doesn't show that only scripture contains God's word

 

[Hentenza]

Show me where scriptures say we should only use scriptures

It doesn't. It says that it is inspired and the word of God. Nothing else can make that claim, therefore, "T"radition can not be co-authoritative with the word of God but subject to the word of God.

 

[Montalban]

Where does scripture say that nothing else can make that claim?

 

[Montalban]

Where does it say in scripture that, for example, the Didache is less inspired?

The problem about arguing that the 'canon' is now set, or in fact that Scripture alone is inspired is that the canon included, or excluded other books - the Bible today doesn't have the same books as other canons

 

[Fireinfolding]

Therefore I'm not arguing about the 'sufficiency' of God's Word, but of the Bible where you and another believe that one needs only the Bible.

And scripture doesn't show that only scripture contains God's word

The holy scriptures are the words of our God (in Whom we are to abide) correct? So His words are sufficent for us and I dont know of any good reason why any of us should depart from Him or them.

Is there a sufficent need to, or a reason to (that I am not aware of) that would serve any good purpose in doing so?

And again, ofcourse not, Christ who is called the word of God (in us) abides in those manifestedly declared as living epistles (as these would be those who also abide in Him and his words in them) making them fruitful right?

 

[Hentenza]

Where does scripture say that nothing else can make that claim?

The scripture makes the claim for itself not for extra biblical sources.