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Before NewMan99 became so offended by the term "denomination" that he took his ball and went home (to use a common baseball image), refusing to discuss his "witnesses," his point was that the solitary Scripture the RCC alone so interprets to support it's own view of this is fruitless to this issue, thus we need to look to "witnesses" (evidently to Jesus giving these "keys" to Peter and what that means). He promised to provide this, and these witnesses would indicate that the RCC understanding of The Catholic Papacy would be evidence from 30 AD on.
What we finally got was 5 "witnesses" (turns out, none were witnesses at all), but of those before the 4th century, none of them said anything about the Papacy. At all. What we all discovered is that NewMan99 interpreted these quotes (largely though his own unanswered questions of himself) that they might have been implying something (which, as it turns out, didn't have to do with the papacy anyway).
The Catholic Papacy may well be the most divisive issue in Christianity (certainly among the very top ones). One ______________ (insert whatever word for denomination that is liked) embraces The Catholic view of the Catholic Papacy and that's the Catholic Church, and no other does. It splits us pretty much right down the middle. And this was going on CENTURIES before Luther was born (this one can't be blamed on Luther or the "Protestants!").
So, since it is agreed the RCC's unique (and some would say self-serving) interpretation of one solitary verse doens't get us anywhere, and NewMan99 revealed that the historical evidence actually seems to support the Protestant view and undermines the Catholic one, then how do we substantiate the unique RCC view as correct? Do we just ignore history, ignore NewMan99's own admission that we have no evidence before 90 AD of any such creation of this office at least 60 years earlier (and it is evident, there's none in 90 AD either) - and say, "well, it's just GOTTA be dogmatic fact because one _____________ says it is - the same one that uses the self-same to argue that IT is the sole authority, infallible, powerful, and is right cuz it is so its right here, too?
No one denies that this is believed by all those in the RCC that are doing what the RCC requires of them and accepting it "with docility" because the RCC requires them to do so. I think we all understand that. That's not the issue. The issue is: is it true? A DOGMA that so powerfully divides Christianity needs more than: "I believe it's true because my ______________ (insert preferred word for denomination) requires that I accept with docility that it alone is infallible, supreme and powerful because it alone says that it alone is" (even though, as NewMan99 pointed out, the historic evidence suggests the Protestant and not Catholic view).
This is an important topic! One of THE most in all contemporary Christianity vis-a-vis Christian unity and ecumenism. What is the substantiation for RCC's unique position for it itself? Something of a nature that it would accept from non-RC's (and, "its true because what I say is true and I say it's true" would not be).
Thank you!
Pax
- Josiah
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