3 points regarding 2 timnothy 3:16-17 regarding Sola Scriptura being plainly taught in scripture...
2 Timothy 3:16-17
16(A)All Scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness; 17so that (B)the man of God may be adequate, (C)equipped for every good work.
1.) Paul here teaches that the Bible is A rule of faith. For he says the Church's function of teaching and rebuking and instructing is to be based upon God-inspired Scriptures.
2.) We see that this passage teaches the sufficiency of the Scriptures to function in this way.
3.) We see that Paul not only does not refer us to another rule of faith, but implicitly denies the necessity of such a rule of faith by his teaching on the ability of Scripture to completely equip the man of God.
Therefore, I assert that the doctrine of sola scriptura is taught plainly in this passage.
You have two problems here which i highlighted. First profitable is not sufficient.
Next
In the Old Testament, the name "
man of God" occurs more than
sixty times and consistently refers to those who receive direct revelation from God. For example:
Deuteronomy 33:1 And this is the blessing, wherewith
Moses the
man of God blessed the children of Israel before his death.
1Kings 17:24 And the woman said to
Elijah, "Now I know that you are a
man of God, and that the word of the LORD in your mouth is truth."
2Kings 5:8 But when
Elisha the
man of God heard that the king of Israel had rent his clothes, he sent to the king.
Nehemiah 12:24 ...give thanks, according to the commandment of
David the
man of God
In the New Testament, the term "
man of God" or "
men of God" occurs only three times. When used in 2Peter 1:21 (KJV/NKJ), the same "private interpretation" passage discussed earlier, it refers to prophets and thus repeats the Old Testament usage. Then Paul used the name "
man of God" in reference to apostle Timothy: "as for you,
man of God, aim at righteousness, godliness, faith, love, steadfastness, gentleness" (1st Tim 6:11). Given this overall biblical pattern, "
man of God"
is an exclusive name designating those of highest authority -
it does not refer to each and every believer.
Therefore the third and final reference to
"man of God" in the passage
which you are using here again found in Paul's letter to
apostle Timothy, is significant:
All scripture is inspired by God and profitable for
teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, that the
man of God may be complete, equipped for every good work. I charge you [apostle Timothy] in the presence of God...preach the word,
convince, rebuke, and exhort, be unfailing in patience and in
teaching...discharge all the duties of your
ministry (2nd Timothy 3:16-4:5).
Since the bible places apostles at the center of biblical interpretation, applies the name "
man of God" in an exclusive fashion, and indeed calls apostle Timothy a
"man of God" (1st Tim 6:11) - the weight of evidence indicates that "
man of God" above refers to apostles.
Certainly had Paul intended to reference all Christians in 2nd Timothy 3:17, then saying instead "...that the saints may be complete..." would have properly made the point by harmonizing with the sixty plus uses of the common word "saint" or "saints" in the New Testament. Yet Paul chose the
rare and exclusive term. And indeed the underlined words above show the connection to the formal work of a minister.
So Simon since you are a saint according to the bible this passage does not refer to you .