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Flibbertigibbet
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I myself have been guilty of posting off-topic from the OP, so don't think I'm chastising anyone - but there has been precious little response to the OP and I myself am really interested in knowing your answers.
For those who keep demanding proof of God's existence, I don't think the question really applies to you since you're not likely to be going around teaching from a book you think is complete bunk.
I am really curious about how gay Christians, or those Christians who don't believe the Bible speaks against homosexuality, have reached that position from the text. I know that in all the times that I have read (a) about the Roman soldier with the sick slave and (b) about Ruth and Naomi, it has never once occurred to me that a sexual relationship was implied. If that is the conclusion you have arrived at, how did you do so?
And for those Christians who believe that the Bible doesn't condemn homosexuality (in the same manner that it condemns other sins), how do you address Romans 1:21-32 and other verses which seem to explicitly speak against it?
I've asked before for someone to provide me with the name of a translation of the Bible that doesn't interpret these passages in like manner, but haven't gotten a referral yet. If there is such a translation, would someone please tell me what it is?
I hope you all have gathered by now that I'm not bashing anyone for their sexual orientation. I disagree with the methods used by some, and feel that it is not my place to attack and degrade other people for their choices. I believe that the way to support your position is to vote in support of said position, and champion your cause within your community - not to attack people. IMO that has little effect other than to tick people off and create dissension.
For those who keep demanding proof of God's existence, I don't think the question really applies to you since you're not likely to be going around teaching from a book you think is complete bunk.
I am really curious about how gay Christians, or those Christians who don't believe the Bible speaks against homosexuality, have reached that position from the text. I know that in all the times that I have read (a) about the Roman soldier with the sick slave and (b) about Ruth and Naomi, it has never once occurred to me that a sexual relationship was implied. If that is the conclusion you have arrived at, how did you do so?
And for those Christians who believe that the Bible doesn't condemn homosexuality (in the same manner that it condemns other sins), how do you address Romans 1:21-32 and other verses which seem to explicitly speak against it?
I've asked before for someone to provide me with the name of a translation of the Bible that doesn't interpret these passages in like manner, but haven't gotten a referral yet. If there is such a translation, would someone please tell me what it is?
I hope you all have gathered by now that I'm not bashing anyone for their sexual orientation. I disagree with the methods used by some, and feel that it is not my place to attack and degrade other people for their choices. I believe that the way to support your position is to vote in support of said position, and champion your cause within your community - not to attack people. IMO that has little effect other than to tick people off and create dissension.
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