Gay theologians posit that the Bible affirms same-gender sex acts can be engaged in by Christians.
By what authority and by what scriptural support do they do this?
It is broken down by them to this: The Bible is silent on condemning "homosexuality," and it is claimed by gay theology the Bible has some supporting evidence approving same-gender sexual behavior.
Gay theologians present only a few examples of or for this position.
The first is argument from silence.
Sodom (sodomy) was about inhospitality or pagan religion worship, which included same-gender sex acts for adherants as a matter of worship. If a person avoids pagan religion he/she are free to engage in same-gender sexual unions. (Genesis 18, 19, Ezekiel 16)
Ruth and Naomi, a mother in law and daughter in law are presented by gay theology as having had a lesbian relationship. Ruth, went on to marry a man named Boaz. They had a son named Obed. (Book of Ruth)
Next is David and Jonathan whose close friendship is said to include a homosexual encounter. (1 Samuel 18, 2 Samuel 1)
The last is a situation where a Roman Soldier ownes a slave boy (pais) and is said to have a sexual relationship with this slave. This slave had become sick and Jesus was asked by this Roman commander to heal the boy, and since Jesus healed the slave-boy, this is a gay affirming situation. (Matthew 8, Luke 7)
All of these incidents can be easily explained as NOT affirming same-gender sex (as being apporpriate behavior for believers, as in the case of the Roman and the Sodomites) and can in the case of Naomi and Ruth and David and Jonathan can be explained as common and exceptional love between people with no sexual aspect at all.
There are many places in scripture that shows sexual immorality is to be avoided and/or given up and repented of by believers. And there is the definition of marriage being man/woman as an immutable structure (for believers) designed as such by God the Father. (Matthew 19, Mark 10)
Why then does gay theology even exist?
Why try?
By what authority and by what scriptural support do they do this?
It is broken down by them to this: The Bible is silent on condemning "homosexuality," and it is claimed by gay theology the Bible has some supporting evidence approving same-gender sexual behavior.
Gay theologians present only a few examples of or for this position.
The first is argument from silence.
Sodom (sodomy) was about inhospitality or pagan religion worship, which included same-gender sex acts for adherants as a matter of worship. If a person avoids pagan religion he/she are free to engage in same-gender sexual unions. (Genesis 18, 19, Ezekiel 16)
Ruth and Naomi, a mother in law and daughter in law are presented by gay theology as having had a lesbian relationship. Ruth, went on to marry a man named Boaz. They had a son named Obed. (Book of Ruth)
Next is David and Jonathan whose close friendship is said to include a homosexual encounter. (1 Samuel 18, 2 Samuel 1)
The last is a situation where a Roman Soldier ownes a slave boy (pais) and is said to have a sexual relationship with this slave. This slave had become sick and Jesus was asked by this Roman commander to heal the boy, and since Jesus healed the slave-boy, this is a gay affirming situation. (Matthew 8, Luke 7)
All of these incidents can be easily explained as NOT affirming same-gender sex (as being apporpriate behavior for believers, as in the case of the Roman and the Sodomites) and can in the case of Naomi and Ruth and David and Jonathan can be explained as common and exceptional love between people with no sexual aspect at all.
There are many places in scripture that shows sexual immorality is to be avoided and/or given up and repented of by believers. And there is the definition of marriage being man/woman as an immutable structure (for believers) designed as such by God the Father. (Matthew 19, Mark 10)
Why then does gay theology even exist?
Why try?