If this was already a known factor in the gospel they preached, then why were Peter and the 12 told by Jesus NOT TO GO THE WAY of the GEntiles? Why were they told to "Go to NONE but the Jews?"
After the Cross the KINGDOM program was still being offered to the NATION ISRAEL...nothing had changed!Someone has NOT been paying attention...
Jesus said not to go to the Gentiles BEFORE the cross...
BUT...
AFTER the cross (when the Law was "nailed to the cross" so the new testament of Christ could be brought in)...
Jesus told His disciples to "Go into ALL the world..."
Matthew 28:18f, Mark 16:15-16.
This post #1 above is very short-sighted!
After the Cross the KINGDOM program was still being offered to the NATION ISRAEL...nothing had changed!
The apostles never WENT into all the world, but stayed in Jerusalem.
Not short sighted at all...just pointing out that there are those here who are not in possession of ALL the facts.
During Jesus' earthly ministry that was the extent of the Gospel announcement.The EQUALITY of Jew and Gentile...where did Peter and the 12 teach this?
If this was already a known factor in the gospel they preached, then why were Peter and the 12 told by Jesus NOT TO GO THE WAY of the GEntiles? Why were they told to "Go to NONE but the Jews?"
To those who have obtained a faith of equal standing with ours by the righteousness of our God and Savior Jesus Christ 2 Peter 1:1
The EQUALITY of Jew and Gentile...where did Peter and the 12 teach this?
If this was already a known factor in the gospel they preached, then why were Peter and the 12 told by Jesus NOT TO GO THE WAY of the GEntiles? Why were they told to "Go to NONE but the Jews?"
If this was already a known factor in the gospel they preached, then why were Peter and the 12 told by Jesus NOT TO GO THE WAY of the GEntiles? Why were they told to "Go to NONE but the Jews?"
"To the Jew first" -but they did go to the Gentiles -and the passage is taken out of context and made a pretext by those in MAD, for the passage says:Possibly because the primary mission at that time was to Israel.
Billy <><
Always prove all things -especially when you are hearing if from MAD doctrine. always go check the passage for yourself and lay all Scripture side by side to compare it with itself, not with their private interpretation -Scripture always proves MAD doctrine wrong.
Even covenantalists say something big changed; yet you, a dispensationalist, say nothing changed? That doesn't even sound like dispensationalism.After the Cross the KINGDOM program was still being offered to the NATION ISRAEL...nothing had changed!
If this was already a known factor in the gospel they preached, then why were Peter and the 12 told by Jesus NOT TO GO THE WAY of the GEntiles? Why were they told to "Go to NONE but the Jews?"
I don't believe the Church is the nation of Israel, either, but I believe the nation of Israel received the name of the "New Man" which is "Israel," as a sign of the adoption to come, in Him.I'm thankful for what I've learned from dispy's. I have trouble swallowing the whole "two gospel thing" just like I have trouble swallowing the covenants "the church has become Israel thing". But I have benefitted from the teaching that both have brought to the table.
Much to be learned here.
Billy <><
First: fellow citizens of what? -Who was there first? When did they get added?yesuasaved me,
I'm curious when did gentiles become fellow citizens, and joint hiers. along with Israel.
Galations 3:23
23)But before faith came, we were kept under the law, shut up unto the faith which should afterwards be revealed.
What is paul referring to when he says" the faith"
I don't believe the Church is the nation of Israel, either, but I believe the nation of Israel received the name of the "New Man" which is "Israel," as a sign of the adoption to come, in Him.
think Paul says it best in Gal 3:28-29 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus. And if ye [be] Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise.
The error in Dispensationalism is the thinking that the promises given to Israel are inherited through the bloodline of Abraham, which is wrong thinking and not biblical. They are inherited through faith in the seed of Abraham, which is Christ
Scripture tells us who is this seed
Galations 3:16) Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made. He saith not, And to seeds, as of many; but as of one, And to thy seed, which is Christ.
Jesus is the seed
Genesis 22:18) And in thy seed(Jesus christ) shall all the nations of the earth be blessed; because thou hast obeyed my voice.
"And if ye [be] Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise".
Do you see the contingency? "if ye [be] Christ's"
We are christ's through faith
GAlations 3 :14
14) That the blessing of Abraham might come on the Gentiles through Jesus Christ; that we might receive the promise of the Spirit through faith.
You seem to be confusing promise with promise(s)
Let's look at the scriptures shall we
Romans 9:4
4) Who are Israelites; to whom pertaineth the adoption, and the glory, and the covenants, and the giving of the law, and the service of God, and the promises;
We recieve "the promise" through faith, not on the basis of a natural bloodline, but by putting our faith in the finished work of the cross."The promises" however, are totally different we have no access to these promises.
ROMANS 9:7
7) Neither, because they are the seed of Abraham, are they all children: but, In Isaac shall thy seed be called.
In Isaac is the seed , in which the promises are to be made.