H
HalupkiMonster
Guest
Hi, all.
A few years ago, a woman in my former Orthodox parish who I would consider devout told me that if a woman has a miscarriage, it is because of her own sinfulness, and she is not supposed to receive the Eucharist for a certain number of time after doing so, and then go to confession to "repent".
Is this true?
Is this the kind of thing that is no longer adhered to because "economia", but is still in the canons?
Thanks for your help!
A few years ago, a woman in my former Orthodox parish who I would consider devout told me that if a woman has a miscarriage, it is because of her own sinfulness, and she is not supposed to receive the Eucharist for a certain number of time after doing so, and then go to confession to "repent".
Is this true?
Is this the kind of thing that is no longer adhered to because "economia", but is still in the canons?
Thanks for your help!