mlqurgw
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- Aug 19, 2005
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I honestly believe this is an example of the point I sought to make earlier, that either we seek a way around the clear statement, such as we have above, or ignore it.It is most curious that among an entire chapter on spiritual gifts there is near the end only two verses that would appear totally unrelated to the subject matter. Why is this? What is the relative significance of women's silence to spiritual gifts?
1 Corinthians 14:34-35, "Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience, as also saith the law. And if they will learn any thing, let them ask their husbands at home: for it is a shame for women to speak in the church."
Actually, there would appear to be five verses in I Timothy 2 that cover perhaps six issues regarding women in church; how they should look and how they should act; how should learn; the not teach issue and the 'not usurp authority' issue; and, finally, reasoning as to why for each grouped collectively.
As to the first two, looks and actions, we have:
1 Timothy 2:9-12, "In like manner also, that women adorn themselves in modest apparel, with shamefacedness and sobriety; not with broided hair, or gold, or pearls, or costly array; But (which becometh women professing godliness) with good works.
Despite the technological advancements that today allow for sexual and sensual enhancements regarding patterns and styles of clothing, nylons, high heels, makeup and perfume it would be easy to understand, by today's appearances, how such could be a distraction at a time when the purpose and object should be worship; indeed, women's inherent beauty in the pre-Flood era was such that even the angels themselves were led astray:
Genesis 6:1-2, "And it came to pass, when men began to multiply on the face of the earth, and daughters were born unto them, That the sons of God saw the daughters of men that they were fair; and they took them wives of all which they chose."
Then we have the issue of how they should learn, i.e. be taught:
1 Timothy 2:11, "Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection."
At the time this was written the churches were essentially being run much in the same fashion as the Jewish synagogues where the men and women were separated. It would be nice if we could believe the women were not so disrespectful of the service or so unruly as to call out to their husbands for explanations of what was being taught or preached although it might not be too far distant to assume that in addition to attempting to explain to their nearby children the delivered message or even for the women, themselves, to discuss the message amongst themselves. Indeed, such background chatter could be most disruptive if such were the case and would, doubtless, necessitate the 'learn in silence' or, for clarification sake, ask their husbands afterwards back at home.
With respect to the teaching and usurping issues:
1 Timothy 2:12, "But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence."
The first thing to be noticed is the interjectory connecting the previous verse containing the 'silence with all subjection' with a woman not to teach but here we have "a" woman and "the" man which would seem to infer the meaning is not 'women' and 'men' but, rather, speaks to the marital state itself. This would quite possibly be in line with the women not continually hollering out to their men for the message's clarification.
As to the "usurp authority" this, again, seems to speak to the marital state and not a single woman 'versus' all men as in one woman teaching or usurping authority over all men.
It must also be pointed out that Paul is being explicit here in that he is making it a point that it is his personal opinion ("I" suffer not) and not some sort of all encompassing Godly edict and that, grammatically, teaching and usurping are not the true subject matter, rather, silence is the real issue which falls back in accord with the previous verses that also reiterate silence.
As to the reasoning why we are given the following explanation:
I Timothy 2:12, 14: "For Adam was first formed, then Eve. And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression."
In the first part, Adam being first formed, again, speaks to the marital state and not of necessity men and women in general. Even though there is the order of headship issue that can be brought into play, again, this speaks, too, of the marital state and not men and women collectively.
Finally, we come to the crux of the reasoning, for it was Adam's wife, Eve, that Satan did an end run around to deceive avoiding the husband. It has been postulated for millennia the reason for this is that the term, 'weaker vessel', refers not just to physical limitations but also because she is the more nurturing of the two and is more emotionally ruled (emotions being regarded as baser and more subject to error compared to reason and logic) and, thus, the woman is more easily swayed and deceived than the man and that this (in addition to the fact that it was Adam that God original gave the 'do not eat' command to and Eve then received it from Adam) is the reason why Satan approached Eve.
In any event, the entire issue appears to speak to the marital state and not to women teaching or holding positions of authority over men in general.
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