WHAT 2 THESS 2:2 it meaning ?

[Dan Perez]

I believe that 2 Thess 2:1-3 in MOP helps explain 2 Thess 2:3 '

#1 Verse one is already talking about Christ COMMING / PAROUSIA for the B O C .

#2 Then Paul says to NOT / ME , is a DISJUNCATIVE PARTICLE NEGATIVE which says do NOTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTT to be quickly disturbed .

#3 OUT of your mind , nor to be Frightened , Neither by spirit , Nor by LETTER ( WHICH ARE SPURIOUS LETTERS ) as by us .

#4 As the DAY OF THE LORD , and reminds them of that in 1 Thess 5:2 .

#5 And in verse 3 , I believe APOSTASIA in verse 3 , means the DEPARTURE of the B O C .

#6 So the DEPARTURE should come FIRST / PROTOS , the B O C

#7 Then the MAN OF SIN should be revealed .

dan p

 

[Blade]

Hey. Verse 3 there falling away can also mean departure. Its not that easy to just say departure should come first for many scholars far wiser then me say different. Some say it is some say its not none the less I am ready NOW

 

[Dan Perez]

Hey. Verse 3 there falling away can also mean departure. Its not that easy to just say departure should come first for many scholars far wiser then me say different. Some say it is some say its not none the less I am ready NOW

 

[Dan Perez]

That is what I believe , that APOSTASIA / DEPARTURE of the B O C really is the correct translation .

dan p

 

[Clare73]

I believe that 2 Thess 2:1-3 in MOP helps explain 2 Thess 2:3 '

#1 Verse one is already talking about Christ COMMING / PAROUSIA for the B O C .
#2 Then Paul says to NOT / ME , is a DISJUNCATIVE PARTICLE NEGATIVE which says do NOT to be quickly disturbed .
#3 OUT of your mind , nor to be Frightened , Neither by spirit , Nor by LETTER ( WHICH ARE SPURIOUS LETTERS ) as by us .
#4 As the DAY OF THE LORD , and reminds them of that in 1 Thess 5:2 .

#5 And in verse 3 , I believe APOSTASIA in verse 3 , means the DEPARTURE of the B O C .
#6 So the DEPARTURE should come FIRST / PROTOS , the B O C
#7 Then the MAN OF SIN should be revealed .

You are saying that the rapture (2Th 2:1) cannot occur until the rapture (departure) has occurred (2Th 2:3).

If apostasia means "departure/rapture," then you have removed the reason Paul gives that the day of the LORD and the rapture cannot be imminent (occur at any time); i.e., because the apostasia (rapture) had not yet occurred.
You have made the event (apostasia) which must precede the rapture (and day of the LORD) to be the rapture itself.

So in 2 Th 2:1-8, Paul is correcting their view that the rapture was imminent (2:3) and for which they were idly waiting to occur, as seen by
1) his emphasis on the apostasia (apostasy/rebellion) which must occur (2:3-8) before there will be a rapture (2:1), thereby making it not imminent, and
2) his exhortation to get back to work instead of idly waiting for a not-imminent rapture (3:10-12).

Likewise, the rapture is still not imminent, for the same reason it was not imminent to the Thessalonians 2,000 years ago; i.e., the apostasy (rebellion) has not occurred and the man of lawlessness has not been revealed (v.3).

 

[Dan Perez]

You are saying that the rapture (2Th 2:1) cannot occur until the rapture (departure) has occurred (2Th 2:3).

If apostasia means "departure/rapture," then you have removed the reason Paul gives that the day of the LORD and the rapture cannot be imminent (occur at any time); i.e., because the apostasia (rapture) had not yet occurred.
You have made the event (apostasia) which must precede the rapture (and day of the LORD) to be the rapture itself.

So in 2 Th 2:1-8, Paul is correcting their view that the rapture was imminent (2:3) and for which they were idly waiting to occur, as seen by
1) his emphasis on the apostasia (apostasy/rebellion) which must occur (2:3-8) before there will be a rapture (2:1), thereby making it not imminent, and
2) his exhortation to get back to work instead of idly waiting for a not-imminent rapture (3:10-12).

Likewise, the rapture is still not imminent, for the same reason it was not imminent to the Thessalonians 2,000 years ago; i.e., the apostasy (rebellion) has not occurred and the man of lawlessness has not been revealed (v.3).

Some , like to use the word IMMINENT and it not a Greek word and if you want to uses IMMINENT in place of APOSTASIA , you can if you want too , I believe that it means DEPARTURE .

In 2 Thess 2:3 a lot of translation say , For THAT DAY SHALL NOT COME in not in the Greek text and some a various interpretation .

Some say that FALLING AWAY , means to FALL AWAY from the FAITH , and how follow Eph 3:2 and they all left from following Paul , some 2000 years ago , nothing NEW , here .


dan p

 

[Clare73]

Some , like to use the word IMMINENT and it not a Greek word and if you want to uses IMMINENT in place of APOSTASIA , you can if you want too , I believe that it means DEPARTURE .

"Imminent" means "can occur immediately."
In terms of the rapture it refers to there being nothing else that must happen first.
However, that is not in agreement with NT apostolic teaching of 2 Th 2:3, which teaches that the apostasy must occur and the man of lawlessness must be revealed first, before there can be a rapture.

 

[Dan Perez]

"Imminent" means "can occur immediately."
In terms of the rapture it refers to there being nothing else that must happen first.
However, that is not in agreement with NT apostolic teaching of 2 Th 2:3, which teaches that the apostasy must occur and the man of lawlessness must be revealed first, before there can be a rapture.

And Acts 21:21 also uses the Greek word APOSTASIA and that is what I believe is the word to use in 2 Thess 2:3 and not alone to hold that position .

dan p

 

[Clare73]

And Acts 21:21 also uses the Greek word APOSTASIA and that is what I believe is the word to use in 2 Thess 2:3 and not alone to hold that position .

Yes, Ac 21:21 refers to a defection from the teachings of Moses, and 2Th 2:3 is likewise a defection.

 

[Dan Perez]

Yes, Ac 21:21 refers to a defection from the teachings of Moses, and 2Th 2:3 is likewise a defection.

AND Acts 20:29 also uses the word DEPARTING OR DEPARTURE , and I check all the verses where DEPARTURE is used , an all can make up there mind as Greek words have MORE than one meaning !

danp

 

[Marilyn C]

 

[Marilyn C]

I believe that 2 Thess 2:1-3 in MOP helps explain 2 Thess 2:3 '

#1 Verse one is already talking about Christ COMMING / PAROUSIA for the B O C .

#2 Then Paul says to NOT / ME , is a DISJUNCATIVE PARTICLE NEGATIVE which says do NOTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTT to be quickly disturbed .

#3 OUT of your mind , nor to be Frightened , Neither by spirit , Nor by LETTER ( WHICH ARE SPURIOUS LETTERS ) as by us .

#4 As the DAY OF THE LORD , and reminds them of that in 1 Thess 5:2 .

#5 And in verse 3 , I believe APOSTASIA in verse 3 , means the DEPARTURE of the B O C .

#6 So the DEPARTURE should come FIRST / PROTOS , the B O C

#7 Then the MAN OF SIN should be revealed .

dan p

Hi dan,

I believe that `catching away` will occur just before the Day of the Lord. And then the A/C will be revealed. Joel 2 reveals that the northern power will come against Israel at the beginning of the Day of the Lord.

The 3 Prophetic Days that God has planned help us to understand what occurs in each.

Note the Day of the Lord means the LORD God Almighty in Judgment.

Also, a `Day` in Greek means a specific day and a period of time. The context tells us which one.

 

[Dan Perez]

Hi dan,

I believe that `catching away` will occur just before the Day of the Lord. And then the A/C will be revealed. Joel 2 reveals that the northern power will come against Israel at the beginning of the Day of the Lord.

The 3 Prophetic Days that God has planned help us to understand what occurs in each.

Note the Day of the Lord means the LORD God Almighty in Judgment.

Also, a `Day` in Greek means a specific day and a period of time. The context tells us which one.

Show the 3 Prophetic verse is found , that i can then study what these 3 days mean !

dan p

 

[Marilyn C]

Show the 3 Prophetic verse is found , that i can then study what these 3 days mean !

dan p

Hi Dan,

Yes, that is important to have the scriptures relating to those `Days.` Now, in the Hebrew and Greek the word `Day, ` refers to a period of time and a specific day. Thus context is important to know which.

1. The Day of Christ. (Phil. 1: 6 - 10) 1 Cor. 1: 7 & 8)

This period of time is not only the first in chronological order of fulfilment, but is the greatest in importance in the Divine predestinations. Each reference relates entirely and exclusively to the Church, the Body of Christ, in the specific time-slot identified with the coming of the Lord Jesus Christ. It signifies completion of the highest of God`s purposes, the supreme expression of Divine revelation.

All other expressions of His ordinations are dependent on its completion.

2. The Day of the LORD. (1 Thess. 5: 2 - 9, 2 Peter 3: 10)

This has to do with Israel and the nations and is invariably connected with the wrath of God poured out in judgment on an unbelieving world. It refers to that period of time from the termination of `The Day of Christ,` through the tribulation and millennium and terminating with the creation of the new heavens and earth which precludes `The Day of God. `

3. The Day of God. (2 Peter 3: 11 & 12)

The Day when God will purge and purify the heavens and the earth by fire. Peter is the only one who uses the phrase, `The Day of God.` (It concludes `The Day of the LORD.` )