Was Adam an historical figure?

Was Adam an historical figure?

  • Yes

  • No

  • Unsure


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Calminian

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The problem is with many commentators is that they treat the geneologies as being strictly chronological. A careful reading of the geneologies shows that there are periods where there is no actual chronological order. The thing about Jewish geneologies is that the principal people are mentioned and then they are the ancestors of whole groups of people. In some cases, there are whole generations left out where there is a jump from one person to another. If we maintained a strict chronological order of the geneology, then we would have Methuselah living 17 years after the great Flood, which is an impossibility. So, given that, it is quite possible for Adams three sons to have married women who were not close relatives. We do not know how long it took for Cain and Seth to get around to getting married, and in the hundreds of years since Seth was born, Adam and Eve had more children and there could have been many generations before Cain and Seth did get married.

Couple of good points here I wanted to build on. You may be confusing the Septuagint genealogies with the masoretic which is what bible translations use. in the masoretic genealogies Methuselah dies the same year as the flood, presumably just before the rains came. In the chronological genealogies of Gen. 5 there are no gaps as the ages of the fathers at the son's birth is listed.

But your larger point is well taken. Given the brevity of the ancient toledoth in Genesis, many events are skipped and not recorded. In particular we are not told in the initial narrative whether or not Cain and Abel had siblings growing up. But later in Noah's toledoth we are told the Seth had multiple brothers and sisters with no indication of their order of births. Yet we know from the prior account that Seth was not the first born. This means multiple brothers and sisters could have preceded him.

Also, if you read carefully, the text never says that Cain took a wife in Nod and the biblical evidence suggests he was already married at the time he killed Abel. In fact, at the time, Cain and Abel were both likely well over a century old. How do we know? Because Seth was said to be Abel's replacement, and he was not born until the 130th year of Adam's life. This would suggest that both Cain and Abel were married (probably to their sisters) and had a few generations of descendants at the time. Rather than traveling to Nod and finding a wife, Cain's wife likely traveled with him.

Interestingly, this is what jewish tradition reveals as well.

God therefore did not inflict the punishment [of death] upon him, on account of his offering sacrifice, and thereby making supplication to him not to be extreme in his wrath to him; but he made him accursed, and threatened his posterity in the seventh generation. He also cast him, together with his wife, out of that land. —Antiq. 1:58​

Now while the above account is not authoritative, it does reflect what the Genesis implies, that Cain was already married. Josephus also stated that Cain had children at the time, and eventually summoned them to live with him in Nod.
 
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Papias

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Hi Cal. Leaving the rest of your post to Oscarr (who you are discussing this with), I think this statement needs correcting:


You may be confusing the Septuagint genealogies with the masoretic which is what bible translations use.

Only some of the Bibles use the Masoretic text. Most Christians worldwide look to Bibles that base their Old Testament on the Septuagint, not the Masoretic text. Use of the Masoretic text is only a minority position - even if you add in all the Jews.

Papias
 
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Calminian

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Hi Cal. Leaving the rest of your post to Oscarr (who you are discussing this with), I think this statement needs correcting:




Only some of the Bibles use the Masoretic text. Most Christians worldwide look to Bibles that base their Old Testament on the Septuagint, not the Masoretic text. Use of the Masoretic text is only a minority position - even if you add in all the Jews.

Papias

I have no idea if that's true or not. I would tend to doubt it. Every english translation I've consulted uses the MT genealogies in Genesis. Which english translation(s) are you referring to? Can you cite your sources?

[Edit] You got my curiosity up, so I just went through every single english translation available on biblegateway.com, and not one listed Adam having Seth at age 230. All of them, including all the jewish translations, use the MT genealogies. But I'll stand corrected if you can supply more info.
 
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Papias

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Cal wrote:

I have no idea if that's true or not. I would tend to doubt it. ..... Can you cite your sources?

It's always fair to ask for evidence, and to question a bare assertion. Yep, I've supplied some towards the end of this post.


Every english translation I've consulted uses the MT genealogies in Genesis.

Sounds like you are mostly looking at Protestant Bibles.


You got my curiosity up, so I just went through every single english translation available on biblegateway.com, ... All of them, including all the jewish translations, use the MT genealogies.

Because Bible gateway is a mostly Protestant site, ignoring the bulk of Christianity. Of Christians, most are Roman Catholic, and the second largest group after that is the Eastern Orthodox church at around a quarter billion. Protestants make up only around 25% of all Christians.

and not one listed Adam having Seth at age 230.

That's an interesting difference between the Bibles. The Protestant Bibles seem to just not list an age. The New Jerusalem Catholic Bible lists "130", while the EOB doesn't give an age also. Are we sure this is a way to test if the text uses the Septuagint or not? There have been many edits and different versions of different Bibles, whether Septuagint based or not.



But I'll stand corrected if you can supply more info. Which english translation(s) are you referring to?

Any Catholic or Eastern Orthodox Bibles. Some background:

Protestant Bibles

In the 1500s, Protestant leaders decided to organize the Old Testament material according to the official canon of Judaism rather than the Septuagint. They moved the Old Testament material which was not in the Jewish canon into a separate section of the Bible called the Apocrypha. .....
Catholic and Orthodox Bibles

The Roman Catholic and Orthodox Churches did not follow the Protestant revisions, and they continue to base their Old Testament on the Septuagint. ......
From: What Is the Difference Between Protestant and Catholic Bibles? (and also generally available in many places).

Here is an Eastern Orthodox Genesis: http://orthodoxengland.org.uk/pdf/ot/genesis.pdf

and the Online Catholic New Jerusalem Bible.

Genesis - Chapter 5 - Bible - Catholic Online

Papias
 
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Calminian

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...Because Bible gateway is a mostly Protestant site, ignoring the bulk of Christianity. Of Christians, most are Roman Catholic, and the second largest group after that is the Eastern Orthodox church at around a quarter billion. Protestants make up only around 25% of all Christians.

But we're not talking about christians, but rather Bibles. The vast majority of Bible use the MT it appears. But I'd like to see your evidence that the vast majority of Bible use the Septuagint. I didn't see evidence for this in the links.

Doesn't really pertain to the OP, though I am curious.
 
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Papias

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Cal wrote:

But we're not talking about christians, but rather Bibles. ......I'd like to see your evidence that the vast majority of Bible use the Septuagint. I didn't see evidence for this in the links.

My original claim in Post #162 (feel free to page up and check it) was:

Most Christians worldwide look to Bibles that base their Old Testament on the Septuagint, not the Masoretic text.

So, based on my claim, we are indeed talking about Christians, and not Bibles.


Cal wrote"
The vast majority of Bible use the MT it appears.

Well, as pointed out, I stated "Christians", not "Bibles". Anyway, you could mean "Bible Canons" (Bibles that are different based on which books are included and excluded), "Bible translations" or "copies of Bibles".

If you mean "Bible Canons", then it lookslikethe LXX have more different Canons, since the MT is mostly confined to the Protestants, who mostly use a similar canon (aside from Mormons who have an expanded canon).

If you mean "translations", then we have to compare all the versions of the Bibles, which includes probably dozens of different canons (lists of books included and excluded), such as the Syriac Bible, Protestant Canon, Armenian Canon, Several Catholic Canons, Assyrian Canon, Coptic Canon, and many more. Each of those may have many translations (though few if any alone probably have as many translations as the Protestant Canon). With all those different Bible canons, it's not clear to me at all that there are more translations using the MT as the LXX. I'm not sure that it would matter to me either way - after all, one can probably say there are more Protestant denominations (due mostly to infighting) - at least thousands - than there are, say Eastern Orthodox denominations. But is that a point for or against Protestants?

If you mean "copies", then again I'm not sure how it would shake out. With 3 or 4 times as many non-protestants as protestants, Protestants would have to have, on average, 3 to 4 times as many Bible copies per person than all other Christians just to pull even. That seems unlikely, but who knows? And even if true, what would that say? There are likely more copies of the Bhagavad Gita or the Qu'ran than any of the Protestant Bibles, after all.

I'm wondering what your reason for thinking that the "vast majority" of Bibles use the MT". Are you basing that just on what you can find available online, such as on Biblegateway? And why would it matter?

In Christ-

Papias
 
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Calminian

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Cal wrote:



My original claim in Post #162 (feel free to page up and check it) was:



So, based on my claim, we are indeed talking about Christians, and not Bibles.
...

Right, but you were attempting to correct my claims, so I suppose we've resolved the issue.
 
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Papias

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Cal wrote:
Right, but you were attempting to correct my claims, so I suppose we've resolved the issue.

OK. It seems to me that we've resolved this:

Cal's claim:

You may be confusing the Septuagint genealogies with the masoretic which is what bible translations use.

This seems to be unsupported by evidence. Cal has not offered evidence that all or even most bible translations use the MT text. His only cited support shows that a protestant site offers mainly protestant bibles online.

I think that's sufficient to show that some translations use the MT. All? Certainly not. Most? Who knows?

My claim was:
Most Christians worldwide look to Bibles that base their Old Testament on the Septuagint, not the Masoretic text. Use of the Masoretic text is only a minority position - even if you add in all the Jews.

I think we agree that this is supported by the evidence, being that protestants make up only about 25% of Christians, right?

Papias
 
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Calminian

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...This seems to be unsupported by evidence. Cal has not offered evidence....

Sorry, who are you talking to?

The evidence I offered: biblegateway.com

Just about every mainline translation is on there.

I think you named, what 2 bible translations? I was as open as could be when you first mentioned this that I may have been in error. I'm still open in fact, but waning gradually.
 
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Papias

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Cal wrote:
The evidence I offered: biblegateway.com

So Cal, how about we agree on this as your claim, below?

1. That nearly all of the bible translations on the Protestant online site biblegateway are Protestant translations.

If you are making that claim, I agree you are right.


Just about every mainline translation is on there.
Now you only refer to "mainline" Protestants? Mainline Protestants are a shrinking fraction of all Protestants, including the Baptists, Methodists, Lutherans, etc, but not including Protestants like the Pentecostals, Mormons, JWs, Assemblies of God, etc. Mainline protestants only make up 52% of Protestants (https://www.barna.org/barna-update/...nes-the-state-of-mainline-protestant-churches), or only about 12% of all Christians. Did you intend to only consider mainline Protestants?

If so, then do we agree that any statment that ignores about 90% of Christians isn't relevant?

I think you named, what 2 bible translations?

Well, sure Cal, I only named 2. After all, it's your claim, not mine. The burden of proof is on you for that. I was gracious enough to do some of your legwork for you. To show that most of the bible translations don't use the Septuagint, you'll need to show what the dominant translations are in the main Christian churchs (some of which I listed), and show that the different translations each of these uses is based on the MT.

As pointed out before, your "230" test doesn't work. Just as the rest of the bibles have been changed over time, giving many bibles today, that process obviously would have also already happened with the LXX by Jesus' day, so the many LXX copies then would have varied based on changes made over time, so an LXX version may have no age for Adam at Seth's birth, or have 130, or 230, or something else. Simply naively looking to see if 230 is there doesn't tell definitively whether or not it is based on the LXX or not.


You didn't answer my question. Why?

Here it is again:

My claim was:
Most Christians worldwide look to Bibles that base their Old Testament on the Septuagint, not the Masoretic text. Use of the Masoretic text is only a minority position - even if you add in all the Jews.

I think we agree that this is supported by the evidence, being that protestants make up only about 25% of Christians, right?


In Jesus-

Papias

 
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Calminian

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Cal wrote:


So Cal, how about we agree on this as your claim, below?

1. That nearly all of the bible translations on the Protestant online site biblegateway are Protestant translations.

If you are making that claim, I agree you are right.



Now you only refer to "mainline" Protestants? Mainline Protestants are a shrinking fraction of all Protestants, including the Baptists, Methodists, Lutherans, etc, but not including Protestants like the Pentecostals, Mormons, JWs, Assemblies of God, etc. Mainline protestants only make up 52% of Protestants (https://www.barna.org/barna-update/...nes-the-state-of-mainline-protestant-churches), or only about 12% of all Christians. Did you intend to only consider mainline Protestants?

If so, then do we agree that any statment that ignores about 90% of Christians isn't relevant?



Well, sure Cal, I only named 2. After all, it's your claim, not mine. The burden of proof is on you for that. I was gracious enough to do some of your legwork for you. To show that most of the bible translations don't use the Septuagint, you'll need to show what the dominant translations are in the main Christian churchs (some of which I listed), and show that the different translations each of these uses is based on the MT.

As pointed out before, your "230" test doesn't work. Just as the rest of the bibles have been changed over time, giving many bibles today, that process obviously would have also already happened with the LXX by Jesus' day, so the many LXX copies then would have varied based on changes made over time, so an LXX version may have no age for Adam at Seth's birth, or have 130, or 230, or something else. Simply naively looking to see if 230 is there doesn't tell definitively whether or not it is based on the LXX or not.


You didn't answer my question. Why?

Here it is again:

My claim was:


I think we agree that this is supported by the evidence, being that protestants make up only about 25% of Christians, right?


In Jesus-

Papias


Papias you've lost me. All I need you to do is list al the Bible translations one by one that use the Septuagint. You may just convince me. As I've told you, this is not something I'm very familiar with.

IOWs I keep pleading with you to educate me, but you're stuck arguing with me. We're just talking here. Please, list all the Bible translations you're speaking of. I'm open. Stop trying to debate me.
 
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Papias

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Cal wrote:
Papias you've lost me. All I need you to do is list al the Bible translations one by one that use the Septuagint. You may just convince me. As I've told you, this is not something I'm very familiar with.

As I mentioned, I don't know what translations there are. It seems likely, being that there are dozens of whole other Christian churches that are not protestant, that all of the translations they have made are based on the LXX. I can only guess how many there are. If there are, say, only 20 of them, and each of those only has (on average) made 3 translations, then that's 60.

It's unlikely these are online. Most of the Christian world has much less access to the internet than we do here in America, and the churches are much less likely to have anything online.

IOWs I keep pleading with you to educate me, but you're stuck arguing with me. We're just talking here. Please, list all the Bible translations you're speaking of. I'm open. Stop trying to debate me.

I'm sorry if it sounded like I was trying to debate you (I thought I answered every one of your questions, while you have not answered mine). Plus, the burden of proof is on you to make your claim, not on others to "prove you wrong". Looking up one Protestant site and saying it is representative the whole world is either hopelessly naive or lazy.

OK, since you want a list, I'll look around.

I found some:

01. Catholic Living Bible
02. Navarre Bible (RSVCE)
03. Confranternity Bible
04. Mgr Knox Bible
05. Ignatius Study Bible (RSVCE)
06. Douay Rheims
07. Haydock Douay Rheims
08. New American Bible 1986
09. Chistian Community Bible (1st-3rd Edition)
10. New Jerusalem Bible
11. The English Majory Text Version
12. Holy Orthodox Bible
13. 1966 Jerusalem Bible
14. Brenton Bible
15. Thompson LXX Translation
16. Eastern Orthodox Bible
17. New American Bible 1970
18. Good News Bible
19. World English Bible
20. New Revised Standard Version
21. Christian Community Bible (Later Editions)
22. Orthodox Study Bible


OK, I just found those by looking around just now. Even that list still ignores all middle eastern Christian churches, many in SE Europe, North Africa (notice that no Coptic translations are on the list) and so on. This is only in the RCC and EOC. I'd also guess that there are english translation of the many Russian Orthodox church Bibles. I'm also sure that I've forgotten some other major areas/churches.

Hope that helps-

Papias
 
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mark kennedy

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I have no idea if that's true or not. I would tend to doubt it. Every english translation I've consulted uses the MT genealogies in Genesis. Which english translation(s) are you referring to? Can you cite your sources?

[Edit] You got my curiosity up, so I just went through every single english translation available on biblegateway.com, and not one listed Adam having Seth at age 230. All of them, including all the jewish translations, use the MT genealogies. But I'll stand corrected if you can supply more info.

The King James is from the MT, that effort goes all the way back to William Tyndale and John Wycliffe. It was still very much the standard in Geneva and the King James translators used it as the primary source. Also the NIV used the MT and it's the standard for the Hebrew Canon of Scripture.

What other translations are out there, and there are more then a few, are translations of translations. While these little sidebars are interesting I don't think your going to get a lot of valuable insights from them.

Grace and peace,
Mark
 
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Papias

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mark wrote:

What other translations are out there, and there are more then a few, are translations of translations. While these little sidebars are interesting I don't think your going to get a lot of valuable insights from them.

That sounds like you are disparaging the bibles of most Christians. While on one hand, I agree that anyone who truly believes that God spoke to us through the Scriptures will be concerned to avoid man-made changes to Scripture, doing so opens up your own chosen bible to criticism, since there are no bibles that we can be sure don't contain man-made changes.

Also the NIV used the MT and it's the standard for the Hebrew Canon of Scripture.

This opens the question of the whole canon of scripture. Because that's a tangent on this already admitted tangent, I suggest that we try to only make some summary statements and leave that question to fora where it fits better.

To that end, how about these:

The Catholic position on the canon is that the LXX was used by the apostles, so the Holy Spirit has shown that it's use is approved. The Jews themselves didn't have a set canon at the time (the MT was only decided later), so it represents a later Jewish developement, and is no more God-given than, say, the Midrash or other later Jewish developments. A Catholic discussion is here (Paul did not use the Septuagint nor did Jesus or any of His apostles - Catholic Answers Forums), and there are many others online too.

The Protestant postition is that the MT is the scripture of the Jews, who are God's chosen people, and that the disputed books were not only questioned and rejected by the Jews, but have been questioned by early Christians! Protestants see their inclusion as a human decision made by the early Catholic church, and point out that some early Catholic versions of the Bible don't contain some or all of them. A Protestant page on this is here (Was the Septuagint the Bible of Christ and the Apostles?), and there are many others online too.

OK, now - some points of clarification that apply to both positions. Most of the statements above by both sides are correct. The Jewish canon was not settled in Jesus' time, and wasn't settled in early Christians times, and isn't settled now. That even applies, to a significant extent, to the New Testament. Many books, both in the old and the new, were (and are) questioned by ancient Jews, early Christians, and current Christians as to whether they are really inspired or not. This is not just confined to early days of Christianity, - Martin Luther himself took the books of James and Revelation out of their position in the New Testament, putting them in an appendix and speaking against them as being inspired.

While there isn't an agreed upon list of inspired vs human-made books now, anyone familiar with Christian and Jewish history knows that there never has been. Plus, studying the history shows the actual situation is much messier than that proposed in the simplified Catholic and Protestant statments above - that the Old Testaments of even the Catholics actually use a mix of MT and LXX, and that the MT and LXX often informed each other over history, and untangling them from each other is not completely possible today anway.

When a situation requires an understanding of large amounts of evidence on either side, we can be assured that simplified statements do not reflect the whole truth. This is why biblical scholars, who have looked at much more of the evidence than you or I ever will, are important here. They confirm that the apostles (especially Paul) often quoted from the Septuagint, as apparently did Jesus. How we interpret that is up to each of us. There are many, many book written on this issue, and not only have books been written, but towns burned and nations slaughtered over it, by both sides. We all have ancestors, whether we know it or not, who killed and were killed over this.

So I don't expect to resolve it on a tangent of a tangent on an internet message board today.


The King James is from the MT, that effort goes all the way back to William Tyndale and John Wycliffe. It was still very much the standard in Geneva and the King James translators used it as the primary source.

Aside from the question of the LXX vs the MT, it's clear that the KJV is a terrible translation to be using. It's of course dismissed by all non-Protestant churches, and the Protestant scholars point out that was made from only a handful of late and poor quality manuscripts. In addition to the canon chaos we saw above, it's well known that scribes have added to, deleted from, and otherwise altered the bible manscripts over time, both accidentally and intentionally. The KJV, because it relies only on a few, later manuscripts (from the 10th to 12th centuries), contains the largest amount of these known changes compared to other bibles. While we can't know how many other changes there are in all Bibles (because all our manuscripts are copies of copies of copies,etc.) , we can at least know that the KJV is among the most human-altered versions available.

Because that is undisputable, those that claim the KJV is the most accurate have to rely on a view called "double inspiration" - that God first inspired the original texts, then again, just a few hundred years ago, God intervened again, inspiring the creation of the KJV.

I guess that can't be disproven.

Papias
 
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mark kennedy

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mark kennedy said:
]What other translations are out there, and there are more then a few, are translations of translations. While these little sidebars are interesting I don't think your going to get a lot of valuable insights from them.

That sounds like you are disparaging the bibles of most Christians. While on one hand, I agree that anyone who truly believes that God spoke to us through the Scriptures will be concerned to avoid man-made changes to Scripture, doing so opens up your own chosen bible to criticism, since there are no bibles that we can be sure don't contain man-made changes.

Some things don't translate well, when you start with a translation from Hebrew to Greek and then to English that's a lot of filters. There has to be a standard for the canon, that is the MT for the Hebrew. If it's from the LXX it's just a glorified paraphrase.


This opens the question of the whole canon of scripture. Because that's a tangent on this already admitted tangent, I suggest that we try to only make some summary statements and leave that question to fora where it fits better.

That's not a question for me, the MT is the standard for the canon of the Hebrew Scriptures as far as I'm concerned.

To that end, how about these:

The Catholic position on the canon is that the LXX was used by the apostles, so the Holy Spirit has shown that it's use is approved. The Jews themselves didn't have a set canon at the time (the MT was only decided later), so it represents a later Jewish developement, and is no more God-given than, say, the Midrash or other later Jewish developments. A Catholic discussion is here (Paul did not use the Septuagint nor did Jesus or any of His apostles - Catholic Answers Forums), and there are many others online too.

I'm aware of the Catholic view of the canon of Scripture, it's interesting that they think it's a correction of the errors in the Masoretic text. Got to go with original Hebrew here and I think overall most Christian scholarship would.

The Protestant postition is that the MT is the scripture of the Jews, who are God's chosen people, and that the disputed books were not only questioned and rejected by the Jews, but have been questioned by early Christians! Protestants see their inclusion as a human decision made by the early Catholic church, and point out that some early Catholic versions of the Bible don't contain some or all of them. A Protestant page on this is here (Was the Septuagint the Bible of Christ and the Apostles?), and there are many others online too.

It's been years since I looked into this and it doesn't sound like the arguments are any more persuasive. I'm not seeing a lot of viable reasons why the translation into English isn't better and more reliable from the Hebrew text. Of course, you are entitled to your opinion and unless your doing an exegesis it probably isn't important. I just think a direct translation from the original language makes more sense then a translation from a translation.

OK, now - some points of clarification that apply to both positions. Most of the statements above by both sides are correct. The Jewish canon was not settled in Jesus' time, and wasn't settled in early Christians times, and isn't settled now. That even applies, to a significant extent, to the New Testament. Many books, both in the old and the new, were (and are) questioned by ancient Jews, early Christians, and current Christians as to whether they are really inspired or not. This is not just confined to early days of Christianity, - Martin Luther himself took the books of James and Revelation out of their position in the New Testament, putting them in an appendix and speaking against them as being inspired.

Martin Luther wasn't an exegetical scholar. William Tyndale and John Wycliffe were. The Catholic church had a major issue with the Scriptures being translated into English in the first place. The Bishops Bible was poorly done and the KJV has been the most popular and reliable of the translations into the English since it's first publication in 1611.
When a situation requires an understanding of large amounts of evidence on either side, we can be assured that simplified statements do not reflect the whole truth. This is why biblical scholars, who have looked at much more of the evidence than you or I ever will, are important here. They confirm that the apostles (especially Paul) often quoted from the Septuagint, as apparently did Jesus. How we interpret that is up to each of us. There are many, many book written on this issue, and not only have books been written, but towns burned and nations slaughtered over it, by both sides. We all have ancestors, whether we know it or not, who killed and were killed over this.

All very interesting...

So I don't expect to resolve it on a tangent of a tangent on an internet message board today.

I wouldn't think so.

Aside from the question of the LXX vs the MT, it's clear that the KJV is a terrible translation to be using. It's of course dismissed by all non-Protestant churches, and the Protestant scholars point out that was made from only a handful of late and poor quality manuscripts. In addition to the canon chaos we saw above, it's well known that scribes have added to, deleted from, and otherwise altered the bible manscripts over time, both accidentally and intentionally. The KJV, because it relies only on a few, later manuscripts (from the 10th to 12th centuries), contains the largest amount of these known changes compared to other bibles. While we can't know how many other changes there are in all Bibles (because all our manuscripts are copies of copies of copies,etc.) , we can at least know that the KJV is among the most human-altered versions available.

I haven't thought there was a dimes worth of difference between the direct translations. I regard the Jerusalem Bible as a paraphrase while the NIV is a direct translation and it's a whole lot clearer in it's wording then either the KJV or the Jerusalem Bible.

Because that is undisputable, those that claim the KJV is the most accurate have to rely on a view called "double inspiration" - that God first inspired the original texts, then again, just a few hundred years ago, God intervened again, inspiring the creation of the KJV.

I guess that can't be disproven.

Papias

I think the KJV is one of the best if not the best translation around. It has proven itself superior to many of the other translations but I'm not here to defend it. Indeed, this has gone from one tangent to another and it still makes a lot more sense to me to translate it directly from the Hebrew then from the Hebrew, to the Greek, and then into English. Too many filters.

Grace and peace,
Mark
 
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juleamager

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I think the KJV is one of the best if not the best translation around. It has proven itself superior to many of the other translations but I'm not here to defend it. Indeed, this has gone from one tangent to another and it still makes a lot more sense to me to translate it directly from the Hebrew then from the Hebrew, to the Greek, and then into English. Too many filters.

In my opinion, the New Revised Standard Version is a more superior translation. The source texts include the Novum Testamentum Graece and the Dead Sea Scrolls. Furthermore, the version reads in such a beautiful way, clear and to the point. The language is also gender neutral, modern language for a modern era. It's also ecumeunical, with support from the Orthodox Church in America, United States Council of Catholic Bishops, and various Protestant churches.
 
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enlightened1

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If you compare GENESIS 1:1 in each translation, you will find that there are only a fewe which agree with the KJV (the GENEVA and THIRD MILLINIUM for example); therefore, either the KJV is right and the rest are wrong, or vice versa. What then? Well, which ever is wrong on GEN 1:1 must be doubted in all that follows (GEN - REV). Chose wisely!
 
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juleamager

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That's not exactly good logic, you know. The NRSV, a far more superior Bible translation, reads differently. The texts used by the NRSV, for example, are more accurate and uses modern language. The KJV is outdated and uses archaic language.
 
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ChetSinger

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I think the KJV has been a fantastic translation for the English-speaking world. It has helped bring the Bible to the people, and was created by men who loved the Lord and did astonishingly well with the material they were given.

But I don't use it, because the English language has changed since then. And we now have better and more ancient sources. So today my personal favs are the ESV for reading and the NET Bible for it's copious footnotes.
 
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