The Doctrine of Baptisms.

[Bible Highlighter]

I didn't say that and you know it.

In a manner of speaking you did with 1 John 2:27.
You still have not really explained why it is only written to them.
You just posted verses without any actual commentary that proves your case.
My point is that one can say that to any other part of the New Testament because the instructions were written to other individuals.
So your reasoning on this point is flawed.

Have you gone down to Jerusalem yet? There is a difference between doctrine and actions

I believe in two aspects of salvation.

1. God’s grace through faith without works (Initial Salvation).
2. Sanctification of the Holy Spirit to live a holy life, which is also by faith.

The second aspect of salvation does involve works or action.

I have heard "tongues" which sounds like a language to me. I have also heard "tongues" which decidedly did not. The vss. I mentioned apply specifically to people of John's time. You didn't read them in-context.

Was there an interpreter present?
If not, then they are in disobedience to God.
Please keep in mind that Acts 2 and Acts 10, etcetera are unique events in early church history.
Why? Because Paul gives instructions in 1 Corinthians 14 in regards to tongues speaking.

That is correct as far as it goes.

Is this vs. directed to you personally?

1 Jn 2:19 They went out from us, but they did not really belong to us, because if they had belonged to us, they would have remained with us. But they went out from us to demonstrate that all of them do not belong to us.​

Since it obviously does not, why would a vs. a little bit later, written to the same audience, apply to you specifically? Picking and choosing.

Why would you assume I would make a false reading on 1 John 2:19 when I did not share my viewpoint with you?
Again, this is a rabbit trail you want me to chase because you don’t actually have any context to back up your claims that 1 John 2:27 is only written to them and not us. Again, please show me in 1 John 2 where this is only for those believers at that time and not to us. You need to show either…

(a) A Bible verse that says that the receiving of the Anointing to learn from the Spirit has ended.
(b) A Bible verse that says specifically it was only the believers John was writing to and not other believers.

So far, you are bankrupt in your explanation. You are just making a claim without presenting any of the goods to back up such claims.
Leading me on some wild goose chase in the context does not really prove your case. Prove your case biblically or admit defeat. Don’t play games and avoid the issue.

 

[Der Alte]

In a manner of speaking you did with 1 John 2:27.
You still have not really explained why it is only written to them.
You just posted verses without any actual commentary that proves your case.
My point is that one can say that to any other part of the New Testament because the instructions were written to other individuals.
So your reasoning on this point is flawed.

My reasoning is not flawed. I did explain it but you don't accept it.

1 John 2:18-19​

(18) Little children, it is the last time: and as ye have heard that antichrist shall come, even now are there many antichrists; whereby we know that it is the last time.​

(19) They went out from us, but they were not of us; for if they had been of us, they would no doubt have continued with us: but they went out, that they might be made manifest that they were not all of us.​

What "is the last time" John is talking about at his time not centuries later? Is it still the last time 2 Millenia later? Are you part of this "us"? Who is the "they" that went out from the group of "us," which according to you, includes you, John and others of John's contemporaries?
If these two vss. do NOT specifically include you please explain how a vs. 8 vss. later, same chapter, does?

Was there an interpreter present?
If not, then they are in disobedience to God.
Please keep in mind that Acts 2 and Acts 10, etcetera are unique events in early church history.
Why? Because Paul gives instructions in 1 Corinthians 14 in regards to tongues speaking.

Why do these chapters NOT apply to you?

Why would you assume I would make a false reading on 1 John 2:19 when I did not share my viewpoint with you?

I didn't, see above. If/Since vs. 19 does not specifically pertain to you why do you think vs. 27, same chapter, does?

Again, this is a rabbit trail you want me to chase because you don’t actually have any context to back up your claims that 1 John 2:27 is only written to them and not us. Again, please show me in 1 John 2 where this is only for those believers at that time and not to us.

See above.

You need to show either.. (a) A Bible verse that says that the receiving of the Anointing to learn from the Spirit has ended.
(b) A Bible verse that says specifically it was only the believers John was writing to and not other believers.

I just did, above. All scripture is for us but not all scripture is to us. E.g. all believers are not commanded to go build an ark.

So far, you are bankrupt in your explanation. You are just making a claim without presenting any of the goods to back up such claims.
Leading me on some wild goose chase in the context does not really prove your case. Prove your case biblically or admit defeat. Don’t play games and avoid the issue.

Incorrect. See above.

 

[Bible Highlighter]

My reasoning is not flawed. I did explain it but you don't accept it.

1 John 2:18-19​

(18) Little children, it is the last time: and as ye have heard that antichrist shall come, even now are there many antichrists; whereby we know that it is the last time.​

(19) They went out from us, but they were not of us; for if they had been of us, they would no doubt have continued with us: but they went out, that they might be made manifest that they were not all of us.​

What "is the last time" John is talking about at his time not centuries later? Is it still the last time 2 Millenia later? Are you part of this "us"? Who is the "they" that went out from the group of "us," which according to you, includes you, John and others of John's contemporaries?

No. “The last time" was in their time, and still continuing in our time because there are still many antichrists today. Again, highlighting these words does not prove your case even if it was referring to their time alone.

As for they went out from us but were not of us: Well, again, ALL Scripture is profitable for doctrine, right? (2 Timothy 3:16).
Just as I said before there are many instructions given to the apostles that apply today.
There is no indication that these instructions were exclusively for these believers.

The verses you pointed out here do not make that case at all. You are stretching the meaning of these texts to fit your own narrative.
You simply do not like the idea of 1 John 2:27 applying today, and so you are trying to see something that is not there.

Again, you would need a verse that says that this Anointing has clearly ended. Talking about the time of the event is no different than talking about the time of the events of the other apostles and their instruction. It does not undo their instruction because they were giving it to each other in the early church.

But by your logic, any instruction given to the believers by Jesus or the apostles can be said it was for only them and their time alone. By your logic, I can point to similar verses and say it was all only for them and not us because we believers in the future are not mentioned. But of course because you say it, we must our bow the knee and kiss your ring (metaphorically speaking) because you have all the right understanding and you can never be wrong on interpreting God’s Word.

 

[AbbaLove]

The Doctrine of Baptisms relies more upon mankind's religious indoctrinations
True Christianity relies upon one's abiding relationship with Him . . . not ones religious affilliation (dogmas & doctrines)

That's WHY it's so controversial (theological [christian] religiousity)​

 

[Dan Perez]

Not sure how many times I have to tell you this before it sinks in, but I have no pastors, teachers, or leaders. I am not a part of any official church organization. I believe I am a part of a faithful few who take Scripture seriously in what it says and not what the scholars say. I just plainly read the Bible asking God to send the Spirit to give me the understanding on His Word, comparing Scripture with Scripture. No need for the scribes (scholars, lexicons) to act as some kind of priest or code key to get the supposed spiritual meaning.



Where on Earth did I argue that it was baptizer? I think you have me confused with Dan Perez. I support the reading in the King James Bible, and it does not say baptizer.

Since My name came up , what then is your translation of ONE BAPTISM in Eph 4:5 that reads ONE BAPTISMA means ?

Here is another one in 1 Peter 3:21 that reads , The like figure where unto ( even ) BAPTISM where it is the Greek word BAPTISMA mean ?
How does does it means , WATER BAPTISM , as this Greek word is used 22 times from Matt---1 Peter 3:21 , what word would you translate it too ?

dan p