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In a manner of speaking you did with 1 John 2:27.I didn't say that and you know it.
You still have not really explained why it is only written to them.
You just posted verses without any actual commentary that proves your case.
My point is that one can say that to any other part of the New Testament because the instructions were written to other individuals.
So your reasoning on this point is flawed.
I believe in two aspects of salvation.Have you gone down to Jerusalem yet? There is a difference between doctrine and actions
1. God’s grace through faith without works (Initial Salvation).
2. Sanctification of the Holy Spirit to live a holy life, which is also by faith.
The second aspect of salvation does involve works or action.
Was there an interpreter present?I have heard "tongues" which sounds like a language to me. I have also heard "tongues" which decidedly did not. The vss. I mentioned apply specifically to people of John's time. You didn't read them in-context.
If not, then they are in disobedience to God.
Please keep in mind that Acts 2 and Acts 10, etcetera are unique events in early church history.
Why? Because Paul gives instructions in 1 Corinthians 14 in regards to tongues speaking.
Why would you assume I would make a false reading on 1 John 2:19 when I did not share my viewpoint with you?That is correct as far as it goes.
Is this vs. directed to you personally?
1 Jn 2:19 They went out from us, but they did not really belong to us, because if they had belonged to us, they would have remained with us. But they went out from us to demonstrate that all of them do not belong to us.Since it obviously does not, why would a vs. a little bit later, written to the same audience, apply to you specifically? Picking and choosing.
Again, this is a rabbit trail you want me to chase because you don’t actually have any context to back up your claims that 1 John 2:27 is only written to them and not us. Again, please show me in 1 John 2 where this is only for those believers at that time and not to us. You need to show either…
(a) A Bible verse that says that the receiving of the Anointing to learn from the Spirit has ended.
(b) A Bible verse that says specifically it was only the believers John was writing to and not other believers.
So far, you are bankrupt in your explanation. You are just making a claim without presenting any of the goods to back up such claims.
Leading me on some wild goose chase in the context does not really prove your case. Prove your case biblically or admit defeat. Don’t play games and avoid the issue.
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