Romans 10:4

Hedgehog

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Rom 10:4 For Christ [is] the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth.
Rom 10:5 For Moses describeth the righteousness which is of the law, That the man which doeth those things shall live by them.
Rom 10:6 But the righteousness which is of faith speaketh on this wise, Say not in thine heart, Who shall ascend into heaven? (that is, to bring Christ down [from above]: )
Rom 10:7 Or, Who shall descend into the deep? (that is, to bring up Christ again from the dead.)
Rom 10:8 But what saith it? The word is nigh thee, [even] in thy mouth, and in thy heart: that is, the word of faith, which we preach;
Rom 10:9 That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved.

what does that mean, Christ is the end of the law for righteousness?
I thought righteousness never was by the law?

Gal 2:21 I do not frustrate the grace of God: for if righteousness [come] by the law, then Christ is dead in vain.

Gal 3:21 [Is] the law then against the promises of God? God forbid: for if there had been a law given which could have given life, verily righteousness should have been by the law.

This seems to say it use to be? But now it isnt?

Rom 3:21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets;

But Gal 3:21 says it wasnt?

These seem to say it was/is.

Rom 8:4 That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.

Phl 3:6 Concerning zeal, persecuting the church; touching the righteousness which is in the law, blameless.

Rom 2:26 Therefore if the uncircumcision keep the righteousness of the law, shall not his uncircumcision be counted for circumcision?


I feel like this is somehow the answer(below)- but I cant quite organize my thoughts. LOL
Phl 3:9 And be found in him, not having mine own righteousness, which is of the law, but that which is through the faith of Christ, the righteousness which is of God by faith:


also, what does this mean?
Rom 10:5 For Moses describeth the righteousness which is of the law, That the man which doeth those things shall live by them.

The man which doeth those things shall live by them?What does that mean "shall live by them"
 

Katydid

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Okay, not sure if this will answer your question, but I will try.

The law never gained salvation, faith in God has always been the key. But, once we have faith in God, and in His Son, we have a desire to live pleasing to him, so we follow His ways.

Without faith, you are on your own to obey the law 100% without forgiveness, so you must live by every letter of the law and never sin. With faith, we have forgivness, this is what the original sacrifices were set up to be, and Yeshua took the place of all those sin sacrifices and became the final sacrifice. The only reason that sacrifices in the OT were worth anything, is because the people had faith that God would forgive them. We are lost without that faith. But, that faith does not take away our responsibility to live God's way to the best of our ability and continue to learn and grow in Him.

Does any of that make sense, and was it at all helpful?
 
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Shimshon

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Hedgehog said:
Rom 10:4 For Christ [is] the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth.
Rom 10:5 For Moses describeth the righteousness which is of the law, That the man which doeth those things shall live by them.
Rom 10:6 But the righteousness which is of faith speaketh on this wise, Say not in thine heart, Who shall ascend into heaven? (that is, to bring Christ down [from above]: )
Rom 10:7 Or, Who shall descend into the deep? (that is, to bring up Christ again from the dead.)
Rom 10:8 But what saith it? The word is nigh thee, [even] in thy mouth, and in thy heart: that is, the word of faith, which we preach;
Rom 10:9 That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved.

what does that mean, Christ is the end of the law for righteousness?
I thought righteousness never was by the law?

I like this translation better; 4 For the goal at which the Torah aims is the Messiah, who offers righteousness to everyone who trusts.

Torah bound everything up under sin so nobody could boast about being righteous without being sinless, observing all Torah. Yeshua put an end to sin, and thus fulfilled the purpose of Torah. He did this by Faith. Which was the whole point of Torah to begin with. "the goal at which the Torah aims is the Messiah, who offers righteousness to everyone who trusts". Not to everyone who legalisticly observed Torah, but those who 'faithfully' observed it.

Hedgehog said:
Gal 2:21 I do not frustrate the grace of God: for if righteousness [come] by the law, then Christ is dead in vain.

Gal 3:21 [Is] the law then against the promises of God? God forbid: for if there had been a law given which could have given life, verily righteousness should have been by the law.

This seems to say it use to be? But now it isnt?

Torah stated that righteousness came by faith, not legalistic observances. YHWH said many times he desires NOT the blood of bulls and goats but a river of righteous living that never runs dry. All the physical observances defined by YHWH's Torah lead to Messiah, not righteousness. If they led to righteousness we would not need Yeshua.

Hedgehog said:
Rom 3:21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets;

But Gal 3:21 says it wasnt?

These seem to say it was/is.

Exactly, It was given on the grounds of faith, but those it was given to did not observe it in faith but legalism. Today Yeshua gives the same Torah to Gentiles, the Torah of Spirit, not the Torah of sin and death. One is bound in legalistic observance leading to death, the other is bound in faith leading to good holy works made for us to walk in from the beginning.

R
Hedgehog said:
om 8:4 That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.

Phl 3:6 Concerning zeal, persecuting the church; touching the righteousness which is in the law, blameless.

Rom 2:26 Therefore if the uncircumcision keep the righteousness of the law, shall not his uncircumcision be counted for circumcision?


I feel like this is somehow the answer(below)- but I cant quite organize my thoughts. LOL
Phl 3:9 And be found in him, not having mine own righteousness, which is of the law, but that which is through the faith of Christ, the righteousness which is of God by faith:


also, what does this mean?
Rom 10:5 For Moses describeth the righteousness which is of the law, That the man which doeth those things shall live by them.

The man which doeth those things shall live by them?What does that mean "shall live by them"

them=Torah
Torah=instructions from YHWH
YHWH said you attain righteousness by faith
Faith=the way righteous people live

Old covenant Jews though you could attain righteousness by living Torah commands out "physically". Without heart intent. They heard "you shall live by them" and saw "legalism=righteousness". But the TRUTH of the matter was if they lived by them in Spirit they would attain life.

Yeshua came to clear that up, and he did. Now the Jew knows the TRUTH as it was revealed to them in person. And so does the Gentile now. Yeshua was revealed first to the Jew through his prophecy, then to the world through Yeshua's life and death. Fulfilling righteousness for BOTH Jew and Gentile. No difference. Jew does NOT attain righteousness by physically observing Torah without heart intent, and the Gentile who observes Torah naturally though given no physcial Torah commands is living Torah in Spirit.

Romans 8:4
Why? Because the Torah of the Spirit, which produces this life in union with Messiah Yeshua, has set me free from the "Torah" of sin and death.

The Torah of sin and death is the physical Torah, it bound everything under sin. The Torah of the Spirit is eternal life for all who have FAITH in Yeshua. YHWH our Savior. As he promised.
 
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Aethelsige

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Umm, Matthew 5:17-20
Lets see, hold on I'm walking over to the window. I am looking outside. Ok, you know what. I see stars. I see my lawn. The flag outside is moving in the wind. It really appears that Heaven and Earth are still out there. So unless Stephen Spielberg has set up a special effects display to make me think they haven't passed away they are still out there.

Did anyone really read Matthew 5:17-20. If the Law is passed away then we are not in the new covenant either. See Jeremiah 31:31-34. Me thinks that the word 'End' in Romans needs to defined in such a way that it does not contradict the rest of Scripture. I have a novel idea why not use the word as it was originally intended and get a better english word.
 
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Echad

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This is how it should read. This puts it in line with the rest of scriptures.

Rom 10:4 For Christ [is] the Goal=[Telos] of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth.

Compare with Rom 8: 6-8
6 The mind of sinful man is death, but the mind controlled by the Spirit is life and peace;
7 the sinful mind is hostile to God. It does not submit to God's law [Torah], nor can it do so.
8 Those controlled by the sinful nature cannot please God.
Shalom
 
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