Soyeong
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- Mar 10, 2015
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If Peter was writing only to Jews, who had that practice or who were used to that, then possibly that is what they would have thought to begin with. But he wouldn't have expected others to read between the lines and assume that they knew what he was saying. Would a Gentile - or we - who read those words have thought, "ah, Peter says ' be holy because I am holy'. This appears in the OT where God is talking about food and hygiene laws, so therefore Peter must be saying that in order to be holy we have to keep all these laws"? If Peter was writing to Gentiles with little knowledge of the OT, or to people who didn't realise that quoting part of a verse brought to mind the rest of it - or may have known that one day such people would be reading his letter - he would have spelt out, plainly "it is God's will for you to follow all the food laws that he gave to our nation back at Mt Sinai, so go and read them and find out what they are."
Acts 15:21 For from ancient generations Moses has had in every city those who proclaim him, for he is read every Sabbath in the synagogues.”
1 Timothy 4:13 Until I come, devote yourself to the public reading of Scripture, to exhortation, to teaching.
2 Timothy 3:16-17 All Scripture is breathed out by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, 17 that the man of God may be complete, equipped for every good work.
Every Sabbath in the synagogues OT Scripture was read publicly, which included the law, and Gentiles were expected to learn from this how to they should behave, how to do what good and how to have a holy and righteous conduct. The implication of Peter referring to Gentiles as obedient children and encouraging them to have a holy conduct is that the recipients of his letter already had to background knowledge to know what he meant, or else they could ask others, or find out by continuing to listen to OT Scripture being publically read every Sabbath.
Yes. We are made righteous and holy in Jesus.
God "chose us in him before the foundation of the world to be holy and righteous in his sight" (Ephesians 1:4) Jesus was made sin for us so that, in him, we might become the righteousness of God, (2 Corinthians 5:21).
If we are in Christ, if we abide in Jesus, we are righteous and God sees us as righteous. This gives us freedom to live in righteousness and holiness - because we already are; that is how God sees us. Also, if we love God we will want to live holy lives.
Neither Jesus, Peter, Paul or any of the other disciples said that being in Christ means obeying all the OT food laws and we cannot be in Christ unless we obey them.
Ephesians 2:8-10 For by grace you have been saved through faith. And this is not your own doing; it is the gift of God, 9 not a result of works, so that no one may boast. 10 For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared beforehand, that we should walk in them.
1 John 3:6 No one who abides in him keeps on sinning; no one who keeps on sinning has either seen him or known him.
John 15:7-8 If you abide in me, and my words abide in you, ask whatever you wish, and it will be done for you. 8 By this my Father is glorified, that you bear much fruit and so prove to be my disciples.
Again, we aren't to obey God's laws to be declared righteous, but because we have been declared righteous, and that's what righteous people are called to do. Abiding in Christ means that we are to bear much good fruit/do good works/practice righteous/refrain from sin, all in accordance with God's instructions for how to do that in His law. Paul said that the law was profitable for training in righteousness and in how to do good works. It makes no sense to say that if we love God we will want to live holy lives while at the same time disregarding God's instructions for how to live holy lives, and following God's dietary laws are part of those instructions. It's not that we can't be in Christ unless we have a righteous conduct, that we are new creations in Christ for the purpose of having a righteous conduct.
That's the point - he gave it to Moses and the Israelites.
Since then, Jesus, the Messiah has come, fulfilled Jewish law for the Jews (if they can accept it) and laid down his life for us all - Jews and Gentiles - so we can be reconciled to God and have eternal life. Jesus is the second Adam, bringing life where the first Adam brought death, and sealed the NEW covenant, prophesied through Jeremiah, with his blood. Hebrews says that where there is a new covenant, the old is obsolete.
I agree. To fulfill the law was a rabbinic term that meat to interpret it in a way that filled it up with meaning, added meaning to it, brought full understanding to it, or to demonstrate how the law should correctly be obeyed. Every Sabbath a rabbi would take a Torah scroll to Moses' seat and fulfill the law by interpreting and explaining how it should be understood. Jesus fulfilled the law 6 times in Matthew 5 by teaching how to understand it and by demonstrating a perfectly sinless example of how the law should be obeyed. Everyone since the time of Moses who has loved their neighbor as themselves has fulfilled the law, so it was not a once and for all thing that Jesus did for us so that we don't have to. On the contrary Jesus said that not the least bit would disappear from the law until heaven and earth passed away and all is accomplished (Matthew 5:17-19). We should not go back to the Old Covenant, but God's law is independent of any particular covenant, and the New Covenant involves God's law being written on our hearts (Jeremiah 31:33). The problem with the Old Covenant was that His people disobeyed God's law, so God made a New Covenant where His people would obey it, not so that we would disregard it.
You don't.
But if the NT writers expected their readers/audiences to obey Jewish food laws, that had been given to other people many years previously; if this was vital for living a holy life, was a command from God and was his will for them as Gentile believers, then I feel sure that they would have spelt it out and made absolutely sure these Gentile believers knew what was expected of them. Instead, what do we find in Acts 15? The Jewish believers in Jerusalem sent a letter to Gentile believers telling them to abstain from blood and from food offered to idols. No mention at all of what to eat or having to keep the rest of the law.
As I said, it's spelled out pretty clearly in 1 John 3:4-10. Sin is defined as breaking the law and no one who abides in Christ keeps on sinning. The law is God's instructions for how to practice righteousness and we're told that practicing righteousness is evidence that we are children of God and not practicing righteousness is evidence that we are children of the devil. Jesus was sinless which means that he obeyed God's dietary laws perfectly, so if we are to become like him and follow his righteous example, then we should also obey God's righteous laws.
If you hold hard to the four laws mentioned in Acts 15 being an exhaustive list of everything that would ever be required of Gentiles, then that would excluding the commands of Jesus and other commands given to them in the NT. However, if you say that it was not an exhaustive list and other laws were obviously included, then I'd agree with you. The list was for the purpose of providing a minimum standard by which Gentiles could have table fellowship with Jews and was given with the understanding that Gentiles would continue to learn how to behave by hearing Moses preached every Sabbath in the synagogues.
I don't think that's how the Jews see it.
Christianity has Jewish origins, Jewish Scriptures, a Jewish Messiah and was probably almost exclusively Jewish for the first few years. I do feel that any Jew who accepts Jesus as their Messiah has become a complete, or fulfilled, Jew.
BUT many of us are not Jews and never have been.
There are similarities between us. God rescued the Israelites from slavery and death in Egypt; we have been rescued from slavery to sin and saved from eternal death by God himself, who sent his Son to die for us. The Israelites were given God's law and were chosen to be his people; we believe in Jesus who IS the Word of God and are his people, and God's children, if we have received eternal life and his Holy Spirit. We don't have the wonderful, rich tradition that Jewish believers have; we have Jesus, only Jesus. But he is enough.
That's how Jewish believers see it. Naturally, Jews who don't believe Jesus is their Messiah would disagree, but if Jesus is the Messiah, then it is the truth, regardless of how anyone sees it. This is what it means to be grafted in:
Ruth 1:16 But Ruth said, “Do not urge me to leave you or to return from following you. For where you go I will go, and where you lodge I will lodge. Your people shall be my people, and your God my God.
According to Ephesians 2:19 Gentiles are now citizens of Israel and according to 1 Peter 2:9-10 Gentiles are now included as part of God's chosen people, so really when people come to faith in the Messiah they are no longer foreigners or heathens and should no longer be referred to as Gentiles. It's not about whether or not you are a Jew or were a Gentile, but about whether you are in Christ and whether the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob is your God too. If He is and you are counted among His people, then you should obey the commands that He has given to His people.
That is not to say that I have to put myself under Jewish law. And by the way, Jewish law isn't just about not eating pork, it includes circumcision, not wearing clothes of mixed fabrics, declaring yourself, or being declared, unclean at certain times (especially if you are a woman). It involves stoning people to death for blasphemy, adultery, or not keeping the Sabbath, it includes instructions to men about beards.
I have never suggest that we should come under God's law, but I think Paul meant something different by "not being under the law" than you do. The law is how we know what sin is and Paul said that we don't have a licence to sin, so we don't have a licence to break God's law, and so Paul did not understand "not being under the law" to mean the same thing as "a licence to disregard the law". It refers to not being under the power of the law to condemn you to death to break it, not to being free from its holy, righteous, and good instructions. We should desire to do what is holy, righteous, and good and take delight in it, so it's not even something that we should want to be free from or something that God would want us to be free from, but rather it is what we have been set free to do (Romans 6:15-19).
I completely agree that dietary laws are not the only laws we should be keeping, as things like not mixing fabrics are also part of what it means to have a holy and righteous conduct. However, the Bible never commanded all Gentiles everywhere to become circumcised and laws in regard to how to do Temple worship only apply when there is a Temple in which to worship. Jesus has paid the penalty for our sins, so there is no need enforce a penalty that has already been paid.
Leviticus gives instructions about offering sacrifices for sin - yet we don't need to do this because Jesus offered his life, once and for all, upon the cross, and even the Jews don't do this now. So Jews and Gentiles alike disregard that part of the law.
If the law given to Hebrews applies to us too, then all of it applies - we can't pick and choose which parts of his law are important or acceptable.
Paul continued to offer sacrifices as part of his Nazarite vow and paid for the sacrifices of others, which included sin sacrifices (Numbers 6) even after Jesus death and resurrection. Furthermore, there will be sacrifices offered, including sin sacrifices, during the Millennium. But again there is no Temple, so those outside the land must do what we can without sacrifices, as the Jews in the Diaspora did. Part of their condition for the return of the exiles was that they would obey God's commands, which included God's Feasts, which would have made that difficult to do if they couldn't keep them without first returning to the land.
Jesus has told, and shown me, how he wants me to live my life, and no one did/does he say "you MUST avoid pork, shellfish, polyester/cotton mixes in order to prove to God that you are holy." Nowhere has he commanded Gentile believers to come to him for salvation and then do everything that God commanded Moses.
Again, having a holy conduct is not about proving that you are holy, but about what those who are holy are called to do. It's what we are to do because we are holy and part of a royal priesthood and a holy nation (1 Peter 2:9-10).
Ephesians 2:8-10 For by grace you have been saved through faith. And this is not your own doing; it is the gift of God, 9 not a result of works, so that no one may boast. 10 For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared beforehand, that we should walk in them.
In other words, we are declared righteous, not by doing what is righteous, but rather we are new creations in Christ for the purpose of doing what is righteous. The good works that God prepared beforehand are what God instructed are good works in His law, which He gave beforehand. As Paul said the OT Scriptures are profitable for training in righteousness and in how to do every good work. So if you want to know what it means to have a holy, righteous, and good conduct, which boths Jews and Gentiles are told to have, then you need to look up God's instructions for that in His law.
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