How is God just?

TheImmortalJellyfish

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Is it possible God chose love and mercy over justice?

Yes. Once we confess our known sins, we become righteous in God's eyes, which means we become "justified". This allows His mercy to forgive us, but Christians certainly don't go unpunished.



God was unable to create perfect non-automatons? God was unable to create a human to His standards? When you get to heaven do you become an automaton?

Not true. Adam and the woman were perfect...before the original sin and the subsequent fall. They used their free-will to disobey God's one and only rule.

When you get to heaven, you lose your sin-nature. You no longer desire to disobey God and serve yourself, only to glorify and serve Him. So you're not necessarily a "robot", sin just simply isn't a factor any longer. :)
 
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JGG

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Yes. Once we confess our known sins, we become righteous in God's eyes, which means we become "justified". This allows His mercy to forgive us, but Christians certainly don't go unpunished.

How are Christians punished?

Not true. Adam and the woman were perfect...before the original sin and the subsequent fall. They used their free-will to disobey God's one and only rule.

The first two production models of God's crown jewel product broke right off the line? I'm going to suggest they were not perfect.

When you get to heaven, you lose your sin-nature. You no longer desire to disobey God and serve yourself, only to glorify and serve Him. So you're not necessarily a "robot", sin just simply isn't a factor any longer. :)

Why not just make us so sin wasn't a factor to begin with? Why allow sin to begin with? Why were we created with a sin nature? That sounds like an annoying feature.

This may be suited for another thread...
 
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oi_antz

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That was one of my earliest thoughts. But there are problems with it.
Like what?
OK, I can see for one thing, it gets a bit scary to think about.

One thing that is intereting to me as I have read through this thread again, is your willingness to think about God seriously. It is uncommon to see people who identify as atheist to think like that. I remember you have told me before that you identify as an ignostic atheist. You also seem to be fairly agnostic in this sense, is that a fair observation for me to make?

So I see there's been a lot going on in this thread, and I would like to pick up a couple of loose ends:
This was a question I asked in a thread which was shut down some time after. Some people wished to answer it.

How is God just?

Let's suppose two men murder two women. Let's further suppose that one man is Christian, one man is not. Now, based on what I have been told the Christian man receives Grace and is allowed to enter heaven, while the non-Christian is sent to hell for all eternity.

Here's where I have problems:

First, if both men are guilty of the same crime, how is it just that they receive different punishments?
It seems that the concept of salvation you are investigating here, is qualified by the definition that whoever is to be saved must have a given belief. This point of view always makes me ask whether it is important to have that belief at the moment of death, or at any one moment prior, or at the moment when not having the belief will prevent an act of condemnation. My own feeling is that because there is no need for justice where there is no sin, then beliefs are only useful or good when they are preventing sin. This leaves me to wonder what good does it do to repent of one's sin when they are on their death bed (besides perhaps providing some sense of peace at a time when it matters most). Also, if someone has a good and useful belief at some time in their life, but later on becomes backslidden where their beliefs are now causing them to be sinful, are they considered saved or not?

No doubt there will be lots of different and valid ideas about this, but it is what I see as being the most important issue to address before other assumptions about eternal justice can be made.
If the punishment for this crime is eternal punishment then God allows the Christian to escape justice rather than enforce it. Furthermore, one woman's killer sees justice the other's does not.
This makes me wonder that if two people have done the same thing but are treated differently for it, what is the reason one might be forgiven while another will not, if the action was the same? Is motive and intent the main consideration when determining relative innocence or guilt?
If the punishment for the crime is that one must confess and repent, the non-Christian's punishment is a few leagues beyond excessive and not just. The non-Christian is punished for eternity, the Christian is punished for relative moments.
..Confessing and repenting for a sin happens once in an eternity? I would never have expected that! What information is this based on?
Also, it assumes that the Christian confesses and repents but the non-Christian does not.

I don't see how such an assumption is made.
So, what defines someone to be Christian (as a person who is forgiven their sin compared to others who are not), if not the confession and repentance of sin?
Furthermore, if confession and repentance makes the balance of justice, what is the significance of Jesus' sacrifice?
Jesus said we do not understand what heaven is like. He said there is no concept of husband and wife in heaven, which I take to mean there is no human reproduction. When this is put beside the parables of how life on earth is a crop which is harvested, then if the crop was never harvested, the farmer had suffered a total loss. Jesus' sacrifice is significant today, because His resurrection proves that a human can have everlasting life.

Well, two things on this:

1. From what I understand, a sin like lying is no better than a sin like murder. That is to say that lying carries the same weight of sin as murder. Basically, if a True Christian is capable of a "minor sin" they just are capable of a "major sin" as sin is sin.
Though I do have to wonder whether that is true. Jesus did speak of different degrees of sin, and it is obvious to see that not all sin causes equal harm. If sin is defined as transgressing law, then He even permitted and defended His disciple's own sin (breaking heads off grain on the Sabbath). What is the reason that you would suggest lying is a sin as bad as murder? If during the holocaust, one provided refuge to a Jew, and was asked if he was assisting a Jew, he would be compelled to lie because he believes the lie is necessary to perform a higher moral action, which is the opposition of murder. If he failed to lie, and did in fact tell the truth (notice too, that chosen words may appear to have both meanings without proper emphasis), then the one who is asking, knowing the truth, must choose whether to murder or to in fact begin the lie themselves, to uphold their own moral obligation. Why then do you say lying is as bad a sin as murder?
2. I'm purposely using what I perceive as a "major sin" to illustrate this point. Murder is to stand in for those "little sins" that a Christian does commit like lying or hate. If my example is true for murder, then it is equally true for lying, lust, hate, rape, or what have you.
When I think about this, I see that Christians who do those things are having a greater negative impact on the world than those who confess openly that they are not associated with God. It is difficult to see that a Christian deserves greater forgiveness for sin than a non-Christian, but it easy to see that they need it. I also have shown a handful of scriptures to support this view, and this brings to mind another one that I haven't given you here.
JGG quotes from Col 3)

[...]without partiality[...]
.. so, exactly what is the free ticket idea, and where did it come from? St Paul does not seem to believe in it, if you remember these words as you read this passage.
Is it possible God chose love and mercy over justice?
It definitely does seem that way, or at least we can say that Jesus did.
God was unable to create perfect non-automatons? God was unable to create a human to His standards? When you get to heaven do you become an automaton?
If someone gets to heaven, is it not evidence that the person has been made to His standards? Perfection means complete, not lacking and fully functional. No single human is complete ever, so they must all be lacking, and regardless what anyone believes human should be, every human is going to be less than fully functional. It sure does seem that God chose this way because it would produce a special result.

Can you imagine a type of world that would produce perfect non-automatons? (I would like to know what that is like), Isn't perfection something we can only assume of God? Is there a single perfect thing in this world?
 
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oi_antz

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He claims by offering those who faithe in Jesus salvation, and not everyone, God is unjust because he doesn't eternally damn Christians for their sins.
With this, I always immediately wonder why is it assumed that He will not also save non-Christians? I am asking for the definition of being qualified to have one's name in the Book of Life, because I know of St Paul's famously misused verse which says "If you confess that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that He is raised from the dead, you will be saved". Which scripture is used to make the inverse statement (ie, if you do not confess that Jesus is Lord, or believe that He is raised from the dead, you will not be saved)? Further to this question, and what I asked near the start of the previous reply, at what moment/s in their life/afterlife is it necessary to demonstrate these beliefs?
 
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TheImmortalJellyfish

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With this, I always immediately wonder why is it assumed that He will not also save non-Christians? I am asking for the definition of being qualified to have one's name in the Book of Life, because I know of St Paul's famously misused verse which says "If you confess that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that He is raised from the dead, you will be saved". Which scripture is used to make the inverse statement (ie, if you do not confess that Jesus is Lord, or believe that He is raised from the dead, you will not be saved)? Further to this question, and what I asked near the start of the previous reply, at what moment/s in their life/afterlife is it necessary to demonstrate these beliefs?

Would Jesus's ministry in Matt 7 be considered a statement of the inverse? I would say the sooner you confess, the better. The sooner you confess and start living according to the Word of God, the more fruit you produce, the better the community around you, the better potential to spread the good news further, the better to glorify God, which is why we as Christians are here. We have willingly accepted the offer of ambassadorship in the Royal Family of God.
 
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oi_antz

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Would Jesus's ministry in Matt 7 be considered a statement of the inverse? I would say the sooner you confess, the better. The sooner you confess and start living according to the Word of God, the more fruit you produce, the better the community around you, the better potential to spread the good news further, the better to glorify God, which is why we as Christians are here. We have willingly accepted the offer of ambassadorship in the Royal Family of God.
Do you mean Matthew 7:24-27? I think that is relevant, but it also applies to many who claim to have Christian beliefs. The whole of Matthew 7 is talking about those who believe but who do not practice what Jesus preaches. In your mind, does John 10:16 show you my concern about such assumptions of the inverse, as I have described, and do you think it is a reasonable assumption to make?

Edit: and another thought I had wrt this, does everyone who confesses that Jesus is Lord and who believes He is raised from the dead, contributing to a better community? I am sure JGG can give evidence to the contrary.
 
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TheImmortalJellyfish

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Do you mean Matthew 7:24-27? I think that is relevant, but it also applies to many who claim to have Christian beliefs. The whole of Matthew 7 is talking about those who believe but who do not practice what Jesus preaches. In your mind, does John 10:16 show you my concern about such assumptions of the inverse, as I have described, and do you think it is a reasonable assumption to make?

Edit: and another thought I had wrt this, does everyone who confesses that Jesus is Lord and who believes He is raised from the dead, contributing to a better community? I am sure JGG can give evidence to the contrary.

Oh, no...you have me mistaken. What I mean by contributing to the community is that you have positive volition to God's Word, which produces fruit of the spirit, which is love, joy, peacefulness, etc which, in turn, affects those around you. It may influence them to desire to know more about why you are exhibiting such traits, which may (or may not, of course) lead them to Christ, thereby spreading the Gospel. Thereby bringing glory to God, and thereby fulfilling that which is required of us as Christians.
 
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oi_antz

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Oh, no...you have me mistaken. What I mean by contributing to the community is that you have positive volition to God's Word, which produces fruit of the spirit, which is love, joy, peacefulness, etc which, in turn, affects those around you. It may influence them to desire to know more about why you are exhibiting such traits, which may (or may not, of course) lead them to Christ, thereby spreading the Gospel. Thereby bringing glory to God, and thereby fulfilling that which is required of us as Christians.
Sure, that is a given IMO. I am questioning perceived qualification for salvation, because that is crucial in our understanding of whether justice is being done.
 
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TheImmortalJellyfish

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Sure, that is a given IMO. I am questioning perceived qualification for salvation, because that is crucial in our understanding of whether justice is being done.

Being born again and saved would be the qualification. John 3:1-4.

And the reasons for that are given:

"What then? Are we better than they? Not at all; for we have already charged that both Jews and Greeks are all under sin; as it is written, “There is none righteous, not even one; there is none who understands, there is none who seeks for God; all have turned aside, together they have become useless; there is none who does good, there is not even one.” (ROM 3:9-12)

"Therefore, just as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men, because all sinned." (ROM 5:12)


"So then as through one transgression there resulted condemnation to all men, even so through one act of righteousness there resulted justification of life to all men. For as through the one man’s disobedience the many were made sinners, even so through the obedience of the One the many will be made righteous." (ROM 5:18-19)
 
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oi_antz

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Being born again and saved would be the qualification. John 3:1-4.
You sure are presenting a point of view that requires a lot of assumption, which is ok to do sometimes, but in this case you are attempting to prove that a given assumption is reliable. Assumptions justified by assumptions are not very convincing.

I am conscious that we are distracting on this thread, my questions are for JGG's topic, and I would like to see if he will respond to my thoughts, as it is his role to direct the discussion. I hate that mods get good conversations shut down because of the rules, but it is not them who cause it. Let us discuss this elsewhere if you would like to, it is something that I think I would like.

I do want to ask why being born of the spirit is the qualification for salvation, and what exactly it is that you refer to, in biblical terms, with the expression "being saved". I would also like to state my observation that Jesus did not give a formula for how one is born of the spirit.

Thank you for the conversation so far, I look forward to better conversation in a more appropriate place. I will PM you for a start.
And the reasons for that are given:

"What then? Are we better than they? Not at all; for we have already charged that both Jews and Greeks are all under sin; as it is written, “There is none righteous, not even one; there is none who understands, there is none who seeks for God; all have turned aside, together they have become useless; there is none who does good, there is not even one.” (ROM 3:9-12)

"Therefore, just as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men, because all sinned." (ROM 5:12)


"So then as through one transgression there resulted condemnation to all men, even so through one act of righteousness there resulted justification of life to all men. For as through the one man’s disobedience the many were made sinners, even so through the obedience of the One the many will be made righteous." (ROM 5:18-19)
This does not really answer the question though, it only supports the point you are making.
 
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aiki

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How is God just?
This was a question I asked in a thread which was shut down some time after. Some people wished to answer it.

How is God just?

Let's suppose two men murder two women. Let's further suppose that one man is Christian, one man is not. Now, based on what I have been told the Christian man receives Grace and is allowed to enter heaven, while the non-Christian is sent to hell for all eternity.

Here's where I have problems:

First, if both men are guilty of the same crime, how is it just that they receive different punishments?
Well, in the case of the Christian murderer, his punishment was borne by another. God's justice was satisfied for the Christian's evil deed by the death of Christ on the cross - just as it was for the non-Christian murderer. The difference in consequence arises from the fact that the Christian has appropriated Christ's atonement for his sins by exercising faith in Christ as his Saviour and Lord while the non-Christian has not.

If the punishment for this crime is eternal punishment then God allows the Christian to escape justice rather than enforce it.
Yes, that's right. But God's justice is not ignored. The Christian's sins are paid for by Christ. They aren't just swept under the rug.

If the punishment for the crime is that one must confess and repent, the non-Christian's punishment is a few leagues beyond excessive and not just.
Every wicked deed, every sinful act of which a person is guilty, has been atoned for by Christ on the cross of Calvary. If one avails himself of the benefit of the atoning work of Jesus through sincere faith in him as Saviour and Lord, then he may escape the eternal consequences of his sin. Thus, the non-Christian who goes to hell does so, not just because he has sinned, but because he has not accepted for himself what God accomplished for him in sacrificing His Only Son on the cross. As evil as murder is, it is a temporal act. What is far more grave, because it entails sin against the infinite God of the universe, is to do as Paul the apostle describes in the Book of Hebrews:

Hebrews 10:29-31
29 Of how much worse punishment, do you suppose, will he be thought worthy who has trampled the Son of God underfoot, counted the blood of the covenant by which he was sanctified a common thing, and insulted the Spirit of grace?
30 For we know Him who said, "Vengeance is Mine, I will repay," says the Lord. And again, "The Lord will judge His people."
31 It is a fearful thing to fall into the hands of the living God.

The non-Christian suffers the eternal fate that he does because his sin is ultimately always against his infinite Creator.

The non-Christian is punished for eternity, the Christian is punished for relative moments. Also, it assumes that the Christian confesses and repents but the non-Christian does not. I don't see how such an assumption is made. Furthermore, if confession and repentance makes the balance of justice, what is the significance of Jesus' sacrifice?
Hey, this is your hypothetical situation. We only go off of what you set up in your hypothetical. Does the Christian confess and repent? It's your hypothetical, so you tell us if he does or not. If the person you are calling a Christian has by faith sincerely accepted Christ as his Saviour and Lord, then the atoning work of Christ has been applied to him. The consequences he should have suffered under God's justice were borne for him by Jesus. This doesn't change if he sins after his conversion. Big or small, Jesus paid for all of his sins.

But beyond that, how do we know God is just? How is God just?
God's justice reflects His holiness. Inasmuch as this is true, His justice differs fundamentally from ours. We are steeped in sin. We are not holy as God is. And our justice reflects this. Therefore, what we call justice and what God calls justice often vary widely from each other. The question isn't, I think, "Is God just?" but "Are we just?" and on what basis do we know we are.

Selah.
 
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WoundedDeep

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This was a question I asked in a thread which was shut down some time after. Some people wished to answer it.

How is God just?

Let's suppose two men murder two women. Let's further suppose that one man is Christian, one man is not. Now, based on what I have been told the Christian man receives Grace and is allowed to enter heaven, while the non-Christian is sent to hell for all eternity.

Here's where I have problems:

First, if both men are guilty of the same crime, how is it just that they receive different punishments?

If the punishment for this crime is eternal punishment then God allows the Christian to escape justice rather than enforce it. Furthermore, one woman's killer sees justice the other's does not.

If the punishment for the crime is that one must confess and repent, the non-Christian's punishment is a few leagues beyond excessive and not just. The non-Christian is punished for eternity, the Christian is punished for relative moments. Also, it assumes that the Christian confesses and repents but the non-Christian does not. I don't see how such an assumption is made. Furthermore, if confession and repentance makes the balance of justice, what is the significance of Jesus' sacrifice?

But beyond that, how do we know God is just? How is God just?

First, if both men are guilty of the same crime, how is it just that they receive different punishments?

If a Christian murders someone, he/she is in danger of facing the exact same penalty as the unbelieving murderer. The only difference is their response to their crime. A true Christian, if he falls into the sin of murder, will repent to God and ask for His forgiveness. An unbeliever, who does not believe in God, will not repent to God or seek His forgiveness. It is repentance of sin that allows a Christian to receive a different outcome from a believer.

Furthermore, if confession and repentance makes the balance of justice, what is the significance of Jesus' sacrifice?

God has already punished sin through Jesus' sacrifice. Jesus' sacrifice on the Cross is to be a substitute for the punishment we receive for our sin. Iow, He took the penalty of our sin on our behalf. Repentance and confession means an acceptance of Jesus' sacrifice and therefore God does not deal the same penalty on people who accept Jesus. Those who do not repent and confess Jesus essentially reject Jesus' atonement - they are telling God they want to bear the penalty of their sin by themselves. That is why they perish.
 
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bling

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First, if both men are guilty of the same crime, how is it just that they receive different punishments?

If a Christian murders someone, he/she is in danger of facing the exact same penalty as the unbelieving murderer. The only difference is their response to their crime. A true Christian, if he falls into the sin of murder, will repent to God and ask for His forgiveness. An unbeliever, who does not believe in God, will not repent to God or seek His forgiveness. It is repentance of sin that allows a Christian to receive a different outcome from a believer.

You bring up some good points but may need to look further with this concept:
Is there a difference between disciplining of your repentant child and the punishment of an unrepentant criminal that refuses to be disciplined?

Is it not still fair/just to discipline and forgive for all the benefits of disciplining than it is to not forgive and punish the person?

The person that refuses to accept God’s disciplining and forgiveness has an added offence.

Paul when he was Saul murdered Christians, so why did he not reap what he sowed?



Furthermore, if confession and repentance makes the balance of justice, what is the significance of Jesus' sacrifice?

God has already punished sin through Jesus' sacrifice. Jesus' sacrifice on the Cross is to be a substitute for the punishment we receive for our sin. Iow, He took the penalty of our sin on our behalf. Repentance and confession means an acceptance of Jesus' sacrifice and therefore God does not deal the same penalty on people who accept Jesus. Those who do not repent and confess Jesus essentially reject Jesus' atonement - they are telling God they want to bear the penalty of their sin by themselves. That is why they perish.

How does anyone “punish the intangible “sin””? Do you not have to “punish” (or discipline) the sinner?

How would it be fair and just for God to punish the innocent Jesus (even if he is willing) and allow the guilty to go free?

OK, “God does not deal the same penalty on people who accept Jesus”, but as a Loving Father would God not see to the disciplining of his children for all the benefits disciplining provides?

What is “atonement”?
 
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WoundedDeep

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You bring up some good points but may need to look further with this concept:
Is there a difference between disciplining of your repentant child and the punishment of an unrepentant criminal that refuses to be disciplined?

Is it not still fair/just to discipline and forgive for all the benefits of disciplining than it is to not forgive and punish the person?

The person that refuses to accept God’s disciplining and forgiveness has an added offence.

Paul when he was Saul murdered Christians, so why did he not reap what he sowed?





How does anyone “punish the intangible “sin””? Do you not have to “punish” (or discipline) the sinner?

How would it be fair and just for God to punish the innocent Jesus (even if he is willing) and allow the guilty to go free?

OK, “God does not deal the same penalty on people who accept Jesus”, but as a Loving Father would God not see to the disciplining of his children for all the benefits disciplining provides?

What is “atonement”?

Before I reply, may I know if you are asking this for yourself or for someone else?
 
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