It was logical that, when Peter died, someone would step up to take his place. This is what we call, today, the Pope.
Which conclusion is just the problem.
1. It is not logical to make a fundamental doctrine simply based on what seems logical, but what Scripture does not testify to, and it is absurd to presume the Holy Spirit would not make it manifest that Peter was going to have successors, which would be consistent with His characteristic providence for basic doctrines.
We see clear instructions to choose elders/overseers, and their qualifications, and of Paul personally disciplining men like pastor (not an apostle) Timothy to carry on his ministry, that "the things that thou hast heard of me [once again not mentioning Peter] among many witnesses, the same commit thou to faithful men, who shall be able to teach others also, (2 Timothy 2:2) but nothing on choosing a successor to Peter (though i am sure some RCs will try to pull one out of a hat). Meanwhile scholars find a plurality of elders ruling in the early post-apostolic church.
2. Under the new covenant, immoral men are disqualified from even being members, let alone being pastors, and much less head of the church, unlike with civil leaders or an aristocracy of blood. And Rome's sppsd successors to Peter included immoral men, as well as absences of any for years, besides competing popes, while the only successor to an apostle was by the non-political OT method of casting lots, which Rome has never used. Thus Romes "unbroken succession" is neither.
3. The premise that " someone would step up to take the place of Peter" does not translate into the Roman pontiffs in their doctrinal unhindered autocratic presumption, ruling over the church as their infallible supreme head in Rome. The fundamental contrasts btwn the Peter of Scripture and his sppsd successors and of the nature of the office itself invalidates the pope from being supreme head of the church.
But I wish that God would raise up a man like Peter and Paul and Stephen etc. today, and that I were more like them in purity, passion and power for Christ.
What you admit to is that your denial of adding to the word of God is based upon adding to the word of God.
Where ha ve we ADDED TO the Word of God. PROVE it.
Where?! Even by the very example at hand. Declaring the Assumption to be the word of God which one is cursed for not believing is adding to the word of God, as this specific past event is not taught nor prophesied of Mary, but it contrary to it, for the bodily resurrection of believers and their receiving crowns awaits the Lords return, as conclusively shown you!
There simply is NO laying on of hands in Gal. 2! Unlike in Acts 9:17; 13:3 where the Spirit distinctly says believers laid hands on Paul, and in the 2nd case in commissioning him, thus showing the Spirit knows how to express such, yet Gal. 2:9 says (in the KJV; DRB, they gave to Paul and Barnabas the right hands of [cf. Mt. 6:3; 20:21; 22:24; 26:64; 27:29; Acts 3:7) fellowship
Refer to verse 9?! That is just what i did, and which simply confirms what i said, that There simply is NO laying on of hands in Gal. 2, and of Paul being made an apostle, but which he already was called, as shown.
Stop trying to read into Scripture what you can only wish was there!
There is no conferring with James in Gal. 1:18
You referenced Gal. 1:18 as Paul conferring with James, and v. 19 only says he saw James, and what i said about v. 18 remains.
Why would Christ need a key? He can walk through walls.
Well then since the Holy Spirit says that the Lord Jesus has "the keys of hell and of death" (Revelation 1:18) and "hath the key of David, he that openeth, and no man shutteth; and shutteth, and no man openeth," (Revelation 3:7) then once again we have a Catholic be correcting Him.
He gave Peter the key and told him what he shuts no one will open. Christ is the King, Peter is the prime minister.
No He did not tell Peter that, or that he was his prime minister, for once again you are reading into the text what you want to see, which even Rome does not infallibly interpret it as saying. Again, there is nothing said in Scripture of this having any other fulfillment besides that of Eliakim, and while that itself does not negate its use, Peter fails of fulfilling it in its totality ("a glorious throne...all the glory of his father's house," etc.) except in RC imagination, but which only Christ can be said to have done.
Just as in the Church today.
Rather, the NT church is that which is Casting down [such] imaginations, and every high thing that exalteth itself against the knowledge of God, and bringing into captivity every thought to the obedience of Christ; (2 Corinthians 10:5)
What? That is the offering up of prayer in memorial before the judgments of the end times, not a postal service, and does not even show or teach that the church or any believer in Scripture ever prayed to created beings in Heaven, which is what the charge was, nor that they even heard these prayers!
"Do you not know that we are currently before the judgements of the end times? But the point is that they aren't dead, they're alive, and bring our prayers to Christ. "
No, the point you were sppsd to be refuting was that the NT church did not "practice praying to created beings in Heaven," which Catholicism has them doing from day One, but which only pagans are shown doing in Scripture.
4. offered rote prayers to obtain early release from Purgatory
"Wrong again. Rote-Memorization by repetition (WordWeb)"
Where is there a Biblical ordinace against memorization or repetition?
Once again you are engaging in obscurantism. The charge was that the NT church in Scripture did not offer rote prayers to obtain early release from Purgatory, which is true, but which you denied Catholicism as doing ("no such thing.")
the rosary is recited
So what? It confirms that rote prayers are offered to obtain early release from Purgatory, that's what.
5. required clerical celibacy as the norm,
It is not contrary to the NT. In fact, Paul said it was better to remain celebate.
Once again you are engaging in sophistry, for the charge is not the contextual validity of being celibate, but that of this being anything even close the norm, and consistent with the requirements for pastors. (1Tim. 3:1-7)
Paul qualifies his counsel by stating that "I would that all men were even as I myself. But every man hath his proper gift of God, one after this manner, and another after that." (1 Corinthians 7:7) To presume that virtually all who are called to be pastors have that gift is an unwarranted and even dangerous presumption, which Paul did not make.
And actually called for marital relations btwn those who were married, (1Co. 7:5) contrary to some so-called church fathers as concerns clergy.
meaning that neither Scripture nor history supports the pre-Constatian papacy, nor what came after it, but the latter defines the former, and enjoines docile submission to it. At least on paper.
You know, I'm about done with you. When you point fingers at people, remember that you have several pointed back at yourself.
Actually you are done, as the fingers that are pointing at you are those of Scripture for trying to defend what it does not manifestly teach.