Are There Really Two Gospels?

[riverrat]

This response is so ridiculous, one has to wonder where people are coming up with such quirky notions.

God is One. His Gospel is one. His Christ is one. Therefore we read in Ephesians 4:4-6 and 1 Cor 10:17 that there is:
ONE Bread
ONE Body
ONE Spirit
ONE Hope
ONE Lord
ONE Faith
ONE Baptism
ONE God and Father of all.

Since the Gospel IS Christ -- His Person and His Finished Work of Redemption -- there cannot possibly be two Gospels. That is mere delusion.

If you cannot see the difference between the Gospel of the kingdom and the Gospel of the grace of God then you are the one that is ridiculous and in a state of delusion.

 

[MWood]

First of all, there is only ONE GOSPEL (1 Cor 15:1-4), therefore it is frequently called just "The Gospel", and Christ said (Mk 16:15) "...Go ye into all the world and preach THE GOSPEL to every creature"

At the same time, it has various designations: it is the Gospel of God, the Gospel of the Grace of God, the Gospel of Christ, the Gospel of Your Salvation, and the Gospel of the Kingdom. Those who claim that there are multiple Gospels are not rightly dividing (interpreting) the Word of Truth.

When Christ came at His first coming, He came as the King-Messiah of Israel according to OT prophecies. That's why before His crucifixion He rode into Jerusalem on a donkey, and was hailed as the One who "cometh in the name of the Lord". Therefore, while on earth, He preached "the Gospel of the Kingdom". But at the same time He required faith in Himself as the Son of God for people to be saved.

The Gospel is that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures, that He was buried, and that He rose again the third day according to the Scriptures (1 Cor 15:1-4), therefore "repentance and remission of sins shold be preached in His name among all nations" (Lk 24:47). The Gospel also includes the truth that God has made Him both Lord and Christ (Acts 2:36).

The only Gospel the Disciples knew was the Gospel of the Kingdom. This is the Gospel that Jesus had taught them, they knew nothing else.

To recognize the differing Gospels, and understand them, is to "Rightly divide the word of truth" There is no other way.

Jesus said many times in the four Gospels that we had to believe in Him for eternal life. That will never change, no matter what Gospel is preached.

In the Gospel of the Kingdom it was preached, Repent and be baptized for the remission of your sins. This was not for salvation, it was for entering the Kingdom of Heaven on earth. The only way to get Salvation is to believe with your heart that Jesus is the Son of God. And believe with your Heart in the death, burial, and resurrection. There is no work on your part in your belief. If there is any work that you do for your salvation, then you would have something to boast about.

 

[corinth77777]

Well......I think..people are just trying to understand the word...Jesus is the answer to a kingdom on earth....if u understand all that..I dont.....and Jesus is the answer to eternal salvation in heaven.......I know thats the thinking ofvthis type of doctrine..not sure I understand it all....but I do see a bit of their point ..for all that they give to explain...but more is needed to verify if itsvtruth for me.....as to if the Jews would have accepted then Jesus would have set up his kingdom...but where is there scriptural reference to that point.

 

[corinth77777]

BAPTISM IS NOT CONSIDERED A WORK..THAT IS PAYABLE FOR SALVATION...ACCORDING TO SOME denominations.....its rather a rite to membership shared by those of faith.....the disciples knew the gospel of grace..according to Ephesians..Believing on Christ is the only gospel..on that I agree. THE WAY the scripture on Baptism is worded some believe. .u r baptized because your sins have been figiven....there are example where words are played with...Another words repent and be baptized because your sins have been fogiven.

 

[corinth77777]

Does Acts 2:38 teach that baptism is necessary for salvation?

 

[Bro in Christ]

Question is in eph 4 it states one baptism nessecary for salvation... Then in acts 1:5 states two different baptisms ... Which one is importAnt

 

[riverrat]

Question is in eph 4 it states one baptism nessecary for salvation... Then in acts 1:5 states two different baptisms ... Which one is importAnt

Neither.

 

[MWood]

Here is my question...why wouldnt the good news for jew...be good new for the gentiles....since we as Gentiles would be blessed through Israel.....Isnt that kind of the interpretation of...why Jesus....helped that woman...the one that said even the dogs get the crums from the table..and because of her faith....she got what she asked of him?

And does the Bible stricyly say the the mystery was only given to Paul....if so where?....if yes...then why did Peter have a dream or vision....when Jesus told him what God set clean was clean....and then...in acts he said who could forbid the gentiles from being baptized who had received the spirit just like they had......where does it say Pail ran and told him the mystery which he himself seem to get by the vision? READ EPHESIANS 3; 5...mystery was not just given to Paul.....so there it is.[/QUOTE

The good news of the Jew is good news for the Gentile, if the Gentile wanted to be a proselyte of the Nation of Israel. By the same token, the good news of the Gentile is good news for the Jew if they wanted to be a member of the Body of Christ. Cornelius of Acts 10 became a proselyte. But the woman that came to Jesus did not become a proselyte. Back in Exodus God told Moses to tell the people to welcome all the strangers that came to them and ask them to teach them of their God. They became proselytes. There was also a centurion that came to Jesus and wanted Him to heal his servant. The scriptures doesn't say he became a proselyte either.

Well good gravy! I have searched for the past two hours trying to find the scripture that tells that the mystery was given to Paul first. My mind is not as sharp as it once was, so I have failed.

But I do know that the book of Ephesians was written some thirty years after the mystery was revealed to Paul. Paul wrote this epistle when he was in prison in Rome not long before his death. The Apostles and Prophets did receive this same revelation at about the same time that Peter went to Cornelius after he received the vision. This vision was some six or seven years after Paul received the revelation of the mystery, and this vision was to show Peter that God was changing the way that He was going to deal with ALL the people and not just the Jews.

The mystery was given to Paul and the Great Commission was given to the twelve disciples. These disciples could not preach the revelation of the mystery because Jesus gave them strict orders to stay in Jerusalem, Judea, and Samaria. In one of the four Gospels Jesus told them that they would not visit all the cities in these areas before He returned. And sure enough He returned to the road to Damascus about a year after He ascended to Heaven.

I hope this somehow helps. I would suggest studying through the book of Acts to get a history of Paul and the Apostles. Then study all the epistles of Paul to get a better understanding of Paul and the Gospel given to him by Jesus Himself.

 

[riverrat]

Here is my question...why wouldnt the good news for jew...be good new for the gentiles....since we as Gentiles would be blessed through Israel.....Isnt that kind of the interpretation of...why Jesus....helped that woman...the one that said even the dogs get the crums from the table..and because of her faith....she got what she asked of him?

And does the Bible stricyly say the the mystery was only given to Paul....if so where?....if yes...then why did Peter have a dream or vision....when Jesus told him what God set clean was clean....and then...in acts he said who could forbid the gentiles from being baptized who had received the spirit just like they had......where does it say Pail ran and told him the mystery which he himself seem to get by the vision? READ EPHESIANS 3; 5...mystery was not just given to Paul.....so there it is.[/QUOTE

The good news of the Jew is good news for the Gentile, if the Gentile wanted to be a proselyte of the Nation of Israel. By the same token, the good news of the Gentile is good news for the Jew if they wanted to be a member of the Body of Christ. Cornelius of Acts 10 became a proselyte. But the woman that came to Jesus did not become a proselyte. Back in Exodus God told Moses to tell the people to welcome all the strangers that came to them and ask them to teach them of their God. They became proselytes. There was also a centurion that came to Jesus and wanted Him to heal his servant. The scriptures doesn't say he became a proselyte either.

Well good gravy! I have searched for the past two hours trying to find the scripture that tells that the mystery was given to Paul first. My mind is not as sharp as it once was, so I have failed.

But I do know that the book of Ephesians was written some thirty years after the mystery was revealed to Paul. Paul wrote this epistle when he was in prison in Rome not long before his death. The Apostles and Prophets did receive this same revelation at about the same time that Peter went to Cornelius after he received the vision. This vision was some six or seven years after Paul received the revelation of the mystery, and this vision was to show Peter that God was changing the way that He was going to deal with ALL the people and not just the Jews.

The mystery was given to Paul and the Great Commission was given to the twelve disciples. These disciples could not preach the revelation of the mystery because Jesus gave them strict orders to stay in Jerusalem, Judea, and Samaria. In one of the four Gospels Jesus told them that they would not visit all the cities in these areas before He returned. And sure enough He returned to the road to Damascus about a year after He ascended to Heaven.

I hope this somehow helps. I would suggest studying through the book of Acts to get a history of Paul and the Apostles. Then study all the epistles of Paul to get a better understanding of Paul and the Gospel given to him by Jesus Himself.

Eph 3:1-5 The mystery was revealed to Paul first. It was later revealed to the apostles by the Spirit through Paul at the council of Jerusalem.

 

[Danoh]

Here is my question...why wouldnt the good news for jew...be good new for the gentiles....since we as Gentiles would be blessed through Israel.....Isnt that kind of the interpretation of...why Jesus....helped that woman...the one that said even the dogs get the crums from the table..and because of her faith....she got what she asked of him?

And does the Bible stricyly say the the mystery was only given to Paul....if so where?....if yes...then why did Peter have a dream or vision....when Jesus told him what God set clean was clean....and then...in acts he said who could forbid the gentiles from being baptized who had received the spirit just like they had......where does it say Pail ran and told him the mystery which he himself seem to get by the vision? READ EPHESIANS 3; 5...mystery was not just given to Paul.....so there it is.

I've found that the more one is able to at least catch a glimpse of similarity between their understandings and Dispensationalism, the better opportunity they have for seeing what we are saying, as they have less preconception have holding them back from seeing our distinctions than, say, Replacementists, or Covenantists, and their various offshoots - Post-Tribbers, Amilleniaalists, Preterists, etc.

In this, your above questions are good ones, even though you have apparently answered them for yourself to result in answers we would not hold to.

This is not so much about attempting to reason thru what appears a bit off, but about attempting to do so through the Scripture.

Example, you ask the valid question, "why wouldnt the good news for jew...be good new for the gentiles...." but you then add "since we as Gentiles would be blessed through Israel....."

The two appear to go together, and do, but only within Israel's Circumcision, Kingdom gospel, which, per Isaiah 60:3 and many other like passages, foresees how that "the Gentiles shall come to thy light, and kings to the brightness of thy rising," which is why when that "Greek... Syrophenician" woman "by nation" that "besought him that he would cast forth the devil out of her daughter... Jesus said unto her, Let the children first be filled:for it is not meet to take the children's bread, and to cast it unto the dogs," Mark 7:26, 27.

Note that Paul describes the intent of their gospel as such after having earlier in Romans related, that salvation has come unto the Gentiles not through Israel's prophesied rise, "rather through their fall," that "blindness in part is happened to Israel until the fullness of the Gentiles be come in, Romans 11.

He then relates Israel's Circumcision/Kingdom gospel, which he has just asserted in on hold, he relates its intent in Rom. 15:

8. Now I say that Jesus Christ was a minister of the circumcision for the truth of God, to confirm the promises made unto the fathers:
9. And that the Gentiles might glorify God for his mercy; as it is written, For this cause I will confess to thee among the Gentiles, and sing unto thy name.
10. And again he saith, Rejoice, ye Gentiles, with his people.
11. And again, Praise the Lord, all ye Gentiles; and laud him, all ye people.
12. And again, Esaias saith, There shall be a root of Jesse, and he that shall rise to reign over the Gentiles; in him shall the Gentiles trust.

Note that that was prophesied, and that it foresees Israel rise to its prophesied glory. And that Paul has related in Romans 1-3 and 9-11, that that has not happened; that God had planned to put it on hold once again.

It is in light of this that we then read, in Romans 15:

13. Now the God of hope fill you with all joy and peace in believing, that ye may abound in hope, through the power of the Holy Ghost.
14. And I myself also am persuaded of you, my brethren, that ye also are full of goodness, filled with all knowledge, able also to admonish one another.
15. Nevertheless, brethren, I have written the more boldly unto you in some sort, as putting you in mind, because of the grace that is given to me of God,
16. That I should be the minister of Jesus Christ to the Gentiles, ministering the gospel of God, that the offering up of the Gentiles might be acceptable, being sanctified by the Holy Ghost.
17. I have therefore whereof I may glory through Jesus Christ in those things which pertain to God.
18. For I will not dare to speak of any of those things which Christ hath not wrought by me, to make the Gentiles obedient, by word and deed,
19. Through mighty signs and wonders, by the power of the Spirit of God; so that from Jerusalem, and round about unto Illyricum, I have fully preached the gospel of Christ.

Paul was entrusted with a different gospel of, or about Christ. His has Israel, not risen to its prophesied glory first "rather, through their fall salvation is come unto the Gentiles," Rom. 11:11.

Example, how does a Jew get saved today? By forgetting his Jewishness, an coming to Christ as Gentiles do as, during this age "their is no difference" before God - "For God hath concluded them all in unbelief, that He might have mercy upon all" without distinction, Rom. 11:32, Rom. 3.

Paul again, and again raises this no distinction issue - but it is in light of this age and this uncircumcision gospel, he was entrusted with, Gal. 2.

All the various Replacement people confuse Paul's context as no distinction between gospels, because they view all as one gospel to begin with.

As for the balance of your question as to "why Jesus....helped that woman...the one that said even the dogs get the crums from the table..and because of her faith....she got what she asked of him?" she was a foretaste of Gentile blessing upon Israel's prophesied rise to its kingdom glory - note that she recognized her place under Israel's table of blessing.

She was also blessed under the same Abrahamic Covenant's principle by which Cornelius would later be blessed in Acts 10, according to Acts 10: 1, 2, 34, 35 - that a Gentile who acknowledges Abraham's God, and works righteousness - acted accordingly toward anyone of that nation - would be blessed by God when this was still in operation, for it is now on hold until the fulness of the Gentiles be come in, sometime after which, God will once more begin to deal with "His people whom he did foreknow, as to the issue they will be dealing with - the issue of Baal worship in its worst manifestation - Antichrist - as Israel heads into Daniel 9's, Malachi 3 and 4's, and Matthew 3's "with fire" or the Tribulation period. I

In this, its interesting that Paul touches on a similar issue in Israel's past, in the first few verses of Romans11.

Anyway, some aspects of the Abrahamic Covenant principle as to Gentile dealings with Israel at work during the Great Tribulation - Matthew 25:

31. When the Son of man shall come in his glory, and all the holy angels with him, then shall he sit the throne of his glory:
32. And before him shall be gathered all nations: and he shall separate them one from another, as a shepherd divideth his sheep from the goats:

40. And the King shall answer and say unto them, Verily I say unto you, Inasmuch as ye have done it unto one of the least of these my brethren, ye have done it unto me.
41. Then shall he say also unto them on the left hand, Depart from me, ye cursed, into everlasting fire, prepared for the devil and his angels:
42. For I was an hungered, and ye gave me no meat: I was thirsty, and ye gave me no drink:
43. I was a stranger, and ye took me not in: naked, and ye clothed me not: sick, and in prison, and ye visited me not.
44. Then shall they also answer him, saying, Lord, when saw we thee an hungered, or athirst, or a stranger, or naked, or sick, or in prison, and did not minister unto thee?
45. Then shall he answer them, saying, Verily I say unto you, Inasmuch as ye did it not to one of the least of these, ye did it not to me.
46. And these shall go away into everlasting punishment: but the righteous into life eternal.

Again, that is not the case today - today Israel is not a nation recognized by God as His people - they are there of their own will, and in rebellion worse then at any other time in their entire past - but that is another topic.

For now, I'll leave you to ponder the balance of your questions in light of the above...

 

[preacher4truth]

Personally its all about JESUS, so I don't see 2 gospel..................

Exactly. There is no second gospel. Salvation has and will always be by Grace. Numbers shows the way into Israel is the same for the Jew as it is for the Gentile. Acts shows salvation via the Gospel as the same to both the Jews and the Greeks. So do the Pauline letters.

The link in the OP only shows a misunderstanding of the passages and frankly a heretical view of the passages and a heretical view of the one Gospel.

 

[Danoh]

Exactly. There is no second gospel. Salvation has and will always be by Grace. Numbers shows the way into Israel is the same for the Jew as it is for the Gentile. Acts shows salvation via the Gospel as the same to both the Jews and the Greeks. So do the Pauline letters.

The link in the OP only shows a misunderstanding of the passages and frankly a heretical view of the passages and a heretical view of the one Gospel.

Just love how consistently you and yours will post your opinions - no exegesis of the passages; just so and so is wrong; our reasoning says so, and that's it; case settled.

One reason - you get that stuff out of books other than the Sixty Six Books.

That is what your reasoning through these issues is always based on, even when you look at the passages.

Used to be there myself; put the books away, and got in the Book, only to find myself eventually losing count of how many pastors and experts I sat with in the past, before I just gave up on them all. I'd sit down with them with an open Bible in hand and they'd not know their way around the Book.

They'd point to their huge library of "books about the Bible" though.

Eventually, they'd utter one of their cardboard cut out "God bless you" and send me on my way...

No thanks, keep you sound byte reasoning...

 

[Job8]

The only Gospel the Disciples knew was the Gospel of the Kingdom. This is the Gospel that Jesus had taught them, they knew nothing else.

Before the disciples preached "the Gospel of the Kingdom", John the Baptist preached Christ as the Baptizer with the Holy Ghost, as well as the Lamb of God (Mt 3:11,12; Jn 1:29,36), and said (Lk 3:6) that "all flesh shall see the salvation of God" (the Savior). Therefore the Jews were "in expectation" of their King-Messiah (Lk 3:15) "the Christ" (literally "the Messiah" or "Mashiach") and wondered if John was their Messiah. Therefore to the Jews during the lifetime of Christ it became "the Gospel of the Kingdom", since the King was on earth. This proves that regardless of the label (and there are several) "The Gospel" remains "The Gospel" at all times.

That did not change the fundamental basis of salvation which is justification by grace through faith, since the time of Abel (see Hebrews 11). So the Kingdom aspect of the Gospel prevailed while the King was on earth, and until He rode into Jerusalem on a donkey to fulfil the prophecy pertaining to the King. But salvation was always by grace through faith in the Lamb of God and His finished work of redemption.

In the Gospel of the Kingdom it was preached, Repent and be baptized for the remission of your sins. This was not for salvation, it was for entering the Kingdom of Heaven on earth.

I do hope this bolded statement was simply an error on your part. You should be fully aware that the Kingdom of Heaven is only the outward manifestation of the Kingdom of God, which is within every believer. Therefore in order to either "see" or "enter" into the Kingdom of God, "You MUST be born again" (John 3:3-8). Therefore water baptism did not guarantee remission of sins or entrance into the Kingdom of God. Only faith in the Messiah as the Lamb of God would accomplish that, and this is what John preached.

 

[preacher4truth]

Just love how consistently you and yours will post your opinions - no exegesis of the passages; just so and so is wrong; our reasoning says so, and that's it; case settled.

One reason - you get that stuff out of books other than the Sixty Six Books.

That is what your reasoning through these issues is always based on, even when you look at the passages.

Used to be there myself; put the books away, and got in the Book, only to find myself eventually losing count of how many pastors and experts I sat with in the past, before I just gave up on them all. I'd sit down with them with an open Bible in hand and they'd not know their way around the Book.

They'd point to their huge library of "books about the Bible" though.

Eventually, they'd utter one of their cardboard cut out "God bless you" and send me on my way...

No thanks, keep you sound byte reasoning...

'Just love...' Who? You 'just love' or is it someone else to whom you refer???

Who exactly are the 'you and yours' to which you refer?

Also, you claim the 'you and yours' argument as only being based upon their reasoning. Huge failure and straw man on your part. Actually it isn't my reasoning that says your provided link is wrong, it is instead Scripture, and, having sense enough to see the error via having handled the truth -- note Hebrews 5.

Having studied the truth for years the error of your OP and link were glaringly apparent. So are each of your related links on the same subject.

I also mentioned some passages which you conveniently pretend didn't happen. This must happen in order to accuse, correct? No need to pretend I didn't use Scripture. Instead of acknowledging this you accuse of the usage of other books outside of Scripture on me. I've mentioned none of these and have instead only alluded to 'the Book', or to Scripture.

BTW your OP wasn't something 'from the Book' it was an opinion given in a link which used eisegetical analysis. The link is nothing but heresy.

There is only one Gospel, to the Jew first, and also to the Greek. There has been and always will be one Gospel. There has been and always will be one way of salvation which is via grace and being born from above.

It's interesting and sad that you exalt yourself as having sat with many who couldn't answer you. None of them knew their way around the Book, except for you of course.

Wow.

 

[Danoh]

Exactly. There is no second gospel. Salvation has and will always be by Grace. Numbers shows the way into Israel is the same for the Jew as it is for the Gentile. Acts shows salvation via the Gospel as the same to both the Jews and the Greeks. So do the Pauline letters.

The link in the OP only shows a misunderstanding of the passages and frankly a heretical view of the passages and a heretical view of the one Gospel.

Yup, you certainly quoted a lot of Scripture in the above... nit that quoting it is all there is...

 

[Danoh]

Salvation was always by grace. No problem there. But there is a world of difference between grace dispensed here and there, and that, with distinction, and an age of grace to all and upon all without distinction.

 

[corinth77777]

Question is in eph 4 it states one baptism nessecary for salvation... Then in acts 1:5 states two different baptisms ... Which one is importAnt

Read 1 peter 3:21

 

[corinth77777]

Here is my question...why wouldnt the good news for jew...be good new for the gentiles....since we as Gentiles would be blessed through Israel.....Isnt that kind of the interpretation of...why Jesus....helped that woman...the one that said even the dogs get the crums from the table..and because of her faith....she got what she asked of him?

And does the Bible stricyly say the the mystery was only given to Paul....if so where?....if yes...then why did Peter have a dream or vision....when Jesus told him what God set clean was clean....and then...in acts he said who could forbid the gentiles from being baptized who had received the spirit just like they had......where does it say Pail ran and told him the mystery which he himself seem to get by the vision? READ EPHESIANS 3; 5...mystery was not just given to Paul.....so there it is.[/QUOTE

The good news of the Jew is good news for the Gentile, if the Gentile wanted to be a proselyte of the Nation of Israel. By the same token, the good news of the Gentile is good news for the Jew if they wanted to be a member of the Body of Christ. Cornelius of Acts 10 became a proselyte. But the woman that came to Jesus did not become a proselyte. Back in Exodus God told Moses to tell the people to welcome all the strangers that came to them and ask them to teach them of their God. They became proselytes. There was also a centurion that came to Jesus and wanted Him to heal his servant. The scriptures doesn't say he became a proselyte either.

Well good gravy! I have searched for the past two hours trying to find the scripture that tells that the mystery was given to Paul first. My mind is not as sharp as it once was, so I have failed.

But I do know that the book of Ephesians was written some thirty years after the mystery was revealed to Paul. Paul wrote this epistle when he was in prison in Rome not long before his death. The Apostles and Prophets did receive this same revelation at about the same time that Peter went to Cornelius after he received the vision. This vision was some six or seven years after Paul received the revelation of the mystery, and this vision was to show Peter that God was changing the way that He was going to deal with ALL the people and not just the Jews.

The mystery was given to Paul and the Great Commission was given to the twelve disciples. These disciples could not preach the revelation of the mystery because Jesus gave them strict orders to stay in Jerusalem, Judea, and Samaria. In one of the four Gospels Jesus told them that they would not visit all the cities in these areas before He returned. And sure enough He returned to the road to Damascus about a year after He ascended to Heaven.

I hope this somehow helps. I would suggest studying through the book of Acts to get a history of Paul and the Apostles. Then study all the epistles of Paul to get a better understanding of Paul and the Gospel given to him by Jesus Himself.

I did read acts..and never saw anything where paul told everyone else the mystery..Jesus had told his disciple the holy spirit would reveal things to them and he did...as God manifested in acts to peter..as he did preach christ who they had crucified...thats when they ask what shall we do...and my personal belief is....as they were baptized..the true baptism was revealed...

 

[corinth77777]

Eph 3:1-5 The mystery was revealed to Paul first. It was later revealed to the apostles by the Spirit through Paul at the council of Jerusalem.

Where does scrioture plainly show at the council what paul said....please share that verse.....Because you are saying up until this point no one preached Christ had risen.....plz share verse

 

[corinth77777]

Since God gave Peter Revelation..then
How could paul be the first to share the mystery.
In acts 10 peter knew only when God revealed