"You are the salt of the earth" IS NOT IN THE ORIGINAL TEXT!

Bob corrigan · Apr 22, 2023

And by the original text, I mean HEBREW! There is absolutely no doubt that all four gospels were written in Hebrew! It has been proven beyond any shadow of a doubt! And it is evident that when those translators translated the original Hebrew into Greek, they changed things and took away things, all to take away the Jewishness of the Gospels! They wanted to make the Gospels appeal to Gentiles and appear as if the gospels were originally written in Greek, to a Greek-speaking audience from a Greek cultural background with a Greek philosophical mindset! You can check this out for yourselves at hebrewgospels.com. You can read them for yourselves!
While the Roman Government and Military were modeled and built on Roman thought, the Roman culture was heavily Hellenized! In fact, Rome's paganism was copied from the Greeks! They just changed the names.

They have completed Matthew, Mark, and John. They are still working on Luke. In a number of museums overseas, they have physical copies of Matthew's Hebrew Gospel! Some of the early church Father's saw with their own eyes copies of Matthew's Hebrew Gospel!
As I read the translations of the original Hebrew Gospels, two things happen. The original Hebrew Gospels make so much more sense! And you can easily see where the translators changed the Hebrew!
And you will discover that Yeshua NEVER SAID YOU ARE THE SALT OF THE EARTH! Here is the translation of Mat 5:13 from the Hebrew;

And it happened furthermore that Yesua said unto his talmidim (disciples) You are the instructors of the world, but the instruction is cut off by them who are not saved, and nothing else is left but to cast them (unsaved) to the street to be trampled on.

There it is! That is what Yeshua said in Hebrew, and that is what Matthew wrote down in Hebrew!

While it may sound a little strange, remember that we have all been stuck on the words "salt of the earth." Trying to make sense of Mat 5:13 with the concept of salt has been a struggle for anyone who has tried to discover the original meaning! There are six or seven main explanations of this verse, which are all wrong! It just doesn't make any sense! But in Hebrew, it is easy to understand.
Part of the study of Scripture is to dig in the Old Testament for any reference point that something in the New Testament can be traced back to the O.T. There is also the need to compare verses with other verses teaching the same thing. And that is it! There is nowhere else in the New Testament or the O.T. that calls disciples, believers, teachers, priests, or prophets the "salt of the earth!" It is only mentioned one time in the Greek text! That is why nobody can agree on the meaning! Because nobody who claims to teach Scripture wants ever to admit they "don't know what something means." So they either borrow someone else's explanation or come up with their own based on speculation! Some even give up even trying to figure it out! What a mess. Nobody is right, and everybody is wrong.

Here's another one. In our English versions, Mat 5:9 reads, "Blessed are the peacemakers..." Again, another verse is usually explained by what the teacher "thinks it means." But, again, there is not another mention of peacemakers in all of Scripture. What does the Hebrew read? "Blessed are the men of peace..." Which makes sense and is a theme in Scripture,

Mat 10:131
Mk 9:50 "...have peace with one another."
Lk 1:79, 2:29, 7:50,10:5-6.

Another fact, none of the gospel writers believed in "hell," a place of eternal punishment! The Jews did not have a word describing a place of eternal punishment. Yeshua never used the English word "hell," nor did the gospel writers intend for people to believe that Yeshua believed in a eternal place of punishment!
Just because a translator puts a word into a translation does not mean the inserted word is accurate or that the inserted word is true, a true equal to the original Hebrew word, or even belongs in the translation!
b
Here is another one that will blow your mind! John 1:1 in the Hebrew reads, In the beginning was the Son, and the Son was with God and the Son was God!

Wow, right? Remember, we have been using the English word "Word" for hundreds of years! This has been ingrained in all of us forever! As all of us have memorized John 3:16, we all have memorized John 1:1. But check it out. The Greek word logos is a philosophical word that all Greeks and Gentiles were familiar with. It was a subject much debate among all Gentiles. But the Jews had no concept of logos! No Hebrew describes or is connected to the Greek mystical concept of logos. To the Jews, God's word is God Himself, His Authority, His Power, His Sovereignty!
But as myself and countless others began to study John 1:1, we were already headed in the wrong direction, looking for a Hebrew concept of logos, which doesn't exist! Which can't be found, which always ends up in speculation as to what John 1:1 means!

From this point on, I am going to compare the Hebrew translation against anything I read in Matthew, Mark and John. It will take me more time, but time I won't mind investing. And everytime I come across a glaring error, I will make it known. Here is another example!

John 1:10-11, in our versions, reads, He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not. Vs.11 He came unto his own, and his own received him not.

The way vs. 11 is written conveys the idea that all of the Jews rejected Yeshua, which is a big fat lie! Many thousands of Jews believed on Jeshua, including some of the Pharisees, scribes and priests, for years before the first Gentile became a believer, Cornelius, which didn't happen for 14 years after Yeshua ascended! The translators using the Greek, purposely translated vs 11 in that way to create the thought that all of the Jews stood against Yeshua in order to turn the Gentile readers against the Jews! And if you read my study on baptism, you will get a clearer picture of this movement, which began in the 2nd Century!

How about John 1:12? Our version reads, based on the Greek text, But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name.

Hebrew: Only to all of them who receive him, he gives ability, that they be made sons of EL.

I want to point out that the use of the word "ability" is the true meaning of the word power, every time you see the word power. Power means ability, not "strength," force," or "some supernatural flow of the Holy Spirit!" "As many as" represents those that do, a specific group, not "anybody who wants to."

Man, this is so exciting to me! And crucial from here on out! This discovery floored me! Thrilled me! Awed me!

msufan · Apr 22, 2023

I don't know enough to confirm or refute any of these translations but this is definitely interesting and I would subscribe to your newsletter.

Philip_B · Apr 22, 2023

Bob corrigan said:
And by the original text, I mean HEBREW! There is absolutely no doubt that all four gospels were written in Hebrew! It has been proven beyond any shadow of a doubt! And it is evident that when those translators translated the original Hebrew into Greek, they changed things and took away things, all to take away the Jewishness of the Gospels! They wanted to make the Gospels appeal to Gentiles and appear as if the gospels were originally written in Greek, to a Greek-speaking audience from a Greek cultural background with a Greek philosophical mindset! You can check this out for yourselves at hebrewgospels.com. You can read them for yourselves!

The Hebrew Gospel is a theory, generally held to be a minority view, and there are certainly many who would disagree with your view 'absolutely no doubt'. That being said, it is of course entirely probable that many of the earliest accounts of Jesus were voiced in Aramaic. Writing them in Aramaic or Hebrew is of course another grade. The lingua franca of the Roman Empire was Greek, indeed Koine Greek, not high classical Greek, but Street Greek, the shared tongue that advanced trade and communication across the vastness of the Empire, and the reason for that was simply that it had carried on in the wake of the Gaeco-Macedonian Empire. The Gospels were not written for Temples, or for the Academic Elite of the day, but for everyday folk. The most likely language that they might be able to read, speak, or hear, was Koine Greek. Luke was probably the most educated of the writers, and he probably didn't speak Hebrew, and Paul was probably very proficient in Hebrew, but was writing for Greeks Speakers.

Most of the references used in the New Testament seem to be sourced from the LXX (the Septuagint - a Greek Translation of the Old Testament including those texts often now called the Deutero-Canonicals.

Bob corrigan said:
they have physical copies of Matthew's Hebrew Gospel!

I would like to see a real source for the claim. My search suggests that this is lacking, and of course, I would like to know who 'they' are.

Bob corrigan said:
John 1:10-11, in our versions, reads, He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not. Vs.11 He came unto his own, and his own received him not.

Another way to understand the text is to accept the scholarship that suggests John's Gospel was written, at least in part, sometime after the expulsion of the Christians from the Synagues, following the destruction of the Temple. That does make sense, as the initial band of followers of the Way almost certainly understood themselves as Christians, and as the Church grew, and the tensions mounted, and as they became more Gentile through Mission, so they came to speak of the Jews outside of themselves, This is one of the features of the 4th Gospel, consider

John 2:13 "The Passover of the Jews was near, and Jesus went up to Jerusalem."

The phrase 'The Passover of the Jews' suggests that it was written for a predominantly non-Jewish audience. The Samaritans (who were neither Jew nor Gentile) have a more positive appearance in John - and do alright in Luke as well.

The other point I would make is that the text of the Canon of Scripture, is essentially what it is and has been accepted in the Church for most of our life. The twenty-seven books of the New Testament were received and affirmed as scripture based on the Greek text.

DamianWarS · Apr 23, 2023

Bob corrigan said:
And by the original text, I mean HEBREW! There is absolutely no doubt that all four gospels were written in Hebrew! It has been proven beyond any shadow of a doubt! And it is evident that when those translators translated the original Hebrew into Greek, they changed things and took away things, all to take away the Jewishness of the Gospels! They wanted to make the Gospels appeal to Gentiles and appear as if the gospels were originally written in Greek, to a Greek-speaking audience from a Greek cultural background with a Greek philosophical mindset! You can check this out for yourselves at hebrewgospels.com. You can read them for yourselves!
While the Roman Government and Military were modeled and built on Roman thought, the Roman culture was heavily Hellenized! In fact, Rome's paganism was copied from the Greeks! They just changed the names.

They have completed Matthew, Mark, and John. They are still working on Luke. In a number of museums overseas, they have physical copies of Matthew's Hebrew Gospel! Some of the early church Father's saw with their own eyes copies of Matthew's Hebrew Gospel!
As I read the translations of the original Hebrew Gospels, two things happen. The original Hebrew Gospels make so much more sense! And you can easily see where the translators changed the Hebrew!
And you will discover that Yeshua NEVER SAID YOU ARE THE SALT OF THE EARTH! Here is the translation of Mat 5:13 from the Hebrew;

And it happened furthermore that Yesua said unto his talmidim (disciples) You are the instructors of the world, but the instruction is cut off by them who are not saved, and nothing else is left but to cast them (unsaved) to the street to be trampled on.

There it is! That is what Yeshua said in Hebrew, and that is what Matthew wrote down in Hebrew!

While it may sound a little strange, remember that we have all been stuck on the words "salt of the earth." Trying to make sense of Mat 5:13 with the concept of salt has been a struggle for anyone who has tried to discover the original meaning! There are six or seven main explanations of this verse, which are all wrong! It just doesn't make any sense! But in Hebrew, it is easy to understand.
Part of the study of Scripture is to dig in the Old Testament for any reference point that something in the New Testament can be traced back to the O.T. There is also the need to compare verses with other verses teaching the same thing. And that is it! There is nowhere else in the New Testament or the O.T. that calls disciples, believers, teachers, priests, or prophets the "salt of the earth!" It is only mentioned one time in the Greek text! That is why nobody can agree on the meaning! Because nobody who claims to teach Scripture wants ever to admit they "don't know what something means." So they either borrow someone else's explanation or come up with their own based on speculation! Some even give up even trying to figure it out! What a mess. Nobody is right, and everybody is wrong.

Here's another one. In our English versions, Mat 5:9 reads, "Blessed are the peacemakers..." Again, another verse is usually explained by what the teacher "thinks it means." But, again, there is not another mention of peacemakers in all of Scripture. What does the Hebrew read? "Blessed are the men of peace..." Which makes sense and is a theme in Scripture,

Mat 10:131
Mk 9:50 "...have peace with one another."
Lk 1:79, 2:29, 7:50,10:5-6.

Another fact, none of the gospel writers believed in "hell," a place of eternal punishment! The Jews did not have a word describing a place of eternal punishment. Yeshua never used the English word "hell," nor did the gospel writers intend for people to believe that Yeshua believed in a eternal place of punishment!
Just because a translator puts a word into a translation does not mean the inserted word is accurate or that the inserted word is true, a true equal to the original Hebrew word, or even belongs in the translation!
b
Here is another one that will blow your mind! John 1:1 in the Hebrew reads, In the beginning was the Son, and the Son was with God and the Son was God!

Wow, right? Remember, we have been using the English word "Word" for hundreds of years! This has been ingrained in all of us forever! As all of us have memorized John 3:16, we all have memorized John 1:1. But check it out. The Greek word logos is a philosophical word that all Greeks and Gentiles were familiar with. It was a subject much debate among all Gentiles. But the Jews had no concept of logos! No Hebrew describes or is connected to the Greek mystical concept of logos. To the Jews, God's word is God Himself, His Authority, His Power, His Sovereignty!
But as myself and countless others began to study John 1:1, we were already headed in the wrong direction, looking for a Hebrew concept of logos, which doesn't exist! Which can't be found, which always ends up in speculation as to what John 1:1 means!

From this point on, I am going to compare the Hebrew translation against anything I read in Matthew, Mark and John. It will take me more time, but time I won't mind investing. And everytime I come across a glaring error, I will make it known. Here is another example!

John 1:10-11, in our versions, reads, He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not. Vs.11 He came unto his own, and his own received him not.

The way vs. 11 is written conveys the idea that all of the Jews rejected Yeshua, which is a big fat lie! Many thousands of Jews believed on Jeshua, including some of the Pharisees, scribes and priests, for years before the first Gentile became a believer, Cornelius, which didn't happen for 14 years after Yeshua ascended! The translators using the Greek, purposely translated vs 11 in that way to create the thought that all of the Jews stood against Yeshua in order to turn the Gentile readers against the Jews! And if you read my study on baptism, you will get a clearer picture of this movement, which began in the 2nd Century!

How about John 1:12? Our version reads, based on the Greek text, But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name.

Hebrew: Only to all of them who receive him, he gives ability, that they be made sons of EL.

I want to point out that the use of the word "ability" is the true meaning of the word power, every time you see the word power. Power means ability, not "strength," force," or "some supernatural flow of the Holy Spirit!" "As many as" represents those that do, a specific group, not "anybody who wants to."

Man, this is so exciting to me! And crucial from here on out! This discovery floored me! Thrilled me! Awed me!

it seems remiss to say all this without any Hebrew sources or mentioning a single Hebrew word.

Gregory Thompson · Apr 23, 2023

The original gospels were written in street greek, so it could reach a larger audience.

The salt theme when searched by word is summed up in one saying: Keep your saltiness, and be at peace with one another.

Der Alte · Apr 23, 2023

@Bob corrigan
If it is true that the gospels were originally written in Hebrew there would be documentary evidence. There is no way any authority civil or religious could have found and destroyed every copy of Hebrew manuscripts.

Der Alte · Apr 24, 2023

Bob corrigan said:
***
Another fact, none of the gospel writers believed in "hell," a place of eternal punishment! The Jews did not have a word describing a place of eternal punishment. Yeshua never used the English word "hell," nor did the gospel writers intend for people to believe that Yeshua believed in a eternal place of punishment!
Just because a translator puts a word into a translation does not mean the inserted word is accurate or that the inserted word is true, a true equal to the original Hebrew word, or even belongs in the translation!
***

The complete article is 4 pgs long here is the first paragraph.

Gehenna Jewish Encyclopedia

The place where children were sacrificed to the god Moloch was originally in the "valley of the son of Hinnom," to the south of Jerusalem (Josh. xv. 8, passim; II Kings xxiii. 10; Jer. ii. 23; vii. 31-32; xix. 6, 13-14). For this reason the valley was deemed to be accursed, and "Gehenna" therefore soon became a figurative equivalent for "hell." Hell, like paradise, was created by God (Soṭah 22a); according to Gen. R. ix. 9, the words "very good" in Gen. i. 31 refer to hell; hence the latter must have been created on the sixth day. Yet opinions on this point vary. According to some sources, it was created on the second day; according to others, even before the world, only its fire being created on the second day (Gen. R. iv., end; Pes. 54a). The "fiery furnace" that Abraham saw (Gen. xv. 17, Hebr.) was Gehenna (Mek. xx. 18b, 71b; comp. Enoch, xcviii. 3, ciii. 8; Matt. xiii. 42, 50; 'Er. 19a, where the "fiery furnace" is also identified with the gate of Gehenna).

Link below.

GEHENNA - JewishEncyclopedia.com

Complete contents the 1906 Jewish Encyclopedia.

www.jewishencyclopedia.com

Jesus is YHWH · Apr 28, 2023

The OP is full of nonsense.

Why was the New Testament originally written in the Greek and not in Hebrew or some other language?
The basic reason why Greek was chosen for the New Testament instead of Aramaic or Hebrew was that the writers wished to reach a broad, Gentile (non-Israelite) audience, not just a Jewish audience. The spoken tongue used by both the disciples and Christ was highly likely Aramaic, even though such a Semitic language was not the original one used by the Jews.

Greek was the leading written and spoken language of the eastern Mediterranean world when Rome ruled the world during the New Testament period. Indeed, it remained the dominant language, especially in the large cities of Alexandria, Antioch, etc., until after the Arab Muslim conquest, long after the time the Western Roman Empire fell in 476 A.D.

By the time of the New Testament church in the first century A.D., Hellenism had greatly influenced and changed the people and culture of Judea. Greek, not Hebrew, was the commonly used language of Palestine during the rule of the Roman Empire.

The ability to speak the Greek language, especially during New Testament times, was a needed skill as it was used as the standard way of communicating, carrying out business, and so on.

The language was written and used during the early church period to communicate between people who grew up in different areas of the world and whose native tongues were quite different.

The well-known Jewish historian of the New Testament period, Josephus, stated that the ability to speak Greek was very common not only among the general populous but also among servants and slaves.

Some evidence that Christ spoke the language does exist in the New Testament. Jesus utilized at least two Grecian words for love in his well-known post-resurrection conversation with Peter regarding how much he loved him. He used the word agape, which is a deep love and phileo, which is brotherly love toward someone we like (see John 21: 15 - 17). These words have no exact corresponding word either in Old Testament Hebrew or in Aramaic.

Jesus' play on words for "stone" and "rock," while talking with Peter in Matthew 16:18, also uses Grecian words that cannot be replicated in another language.

"And I also say to you that you are Peter (Petros, Strong's Concordance #G4074, which literally means a stone), and on this rock (Petra, Strong's #G4073, which literally means a massive rock) I will build My church . . ." (Matthew 16:18).

Mark 7 records the story of a Gentile woman who requested Jesus heal her young daughter. After being initially rebuffed, she persisted with her request. Jesus responded that he was sent to save and serve Israelites and that, "It isn't right to take the children's food and throw it to the dogs" (Mark 7:27).

The New Testament word Jesus used for 'dogs' was the Greek Kunarion (Strong's Concordance #G2952), commonly used in reference to household pets. He could have, but did not, use the much harsher Hebrew term for dogs commonly used by the Jews in their hatred and contempt for Gentiles.

Additionally, Pontius Pilate could well have questioned Jesus in Greek, since few non-Romans in Judea spoke Latin. It is highly unlikely Pilate would have known the local languages of the "despised" and conquered peoples he ruled in the name of the mighty Roman Empire.

Jesus, befitting a Jew raised in 'Galilee of the Gentiles' (Isaiah 9:1), could converse with people of both Jewish and gentile backgrounds.

Since the apostles and evangelists in the early New Testament church wished to reach as large an audience as possible, they chose to write their inspired words in Greek and not Aramaic, Hebrew or some other language. Their choice, given that the Bible is the most popular book ever printed, proved wise indeed. from bible study org.

hope this helps !!!

PsaltiChrysostom · Apr 28, 2023

The only reference to a NT book being written in Hebrew is Matthew's Gospel. This is mentioned by Papias, Jerome, Origen and Irenaeus.

Matthew also issued a written gospel among the Hebrews in their own dialect.
— Irenaeus, Against Heresies 3:1

We don't know what this book contained or anything else about it. IMHO, this is probably the Q-source for the synoptic Gospels. But since outside of Palestine, no one would be reading Hebrew or Aramaic, the Greek version became the main version we know today.

Der Alte · Apr 28, 2023

Jesus is YHWH said:
The OP is full of nonsense.

Why was the New Testament originally written in the Greek and not in Hebrew or some other language?
The basic reason why Greek was chosen for the New Testament instead of Aramaic or Hebrew was that the writers wished to reach a broad, Gentile (non-Israelite) audience, not just a Jewish audience. The spoken tongue used by both the disciples and Christ was highly likely Aramaic, even though such a Semitic language was not the original one used by the Jews.

Greek was the leading written and spoken language of the eastern Mediterranean world when Rome ruled the world during the New Testament period. Indeed, it remained the dominant language, especially in the large cities of Alexandria, Antioch, etc., until after the Arab Muslim conquest, long after the time the Western Roman Empire fell in 476 A.D.

By the time of the New Testament church in the first century A.D., Hellenism had greatly influenced and changed the people and culture of Judea. Greek, not Hebrew, was the commonly used language of Palestine during the rule of the Roman Empire.

The ability to speak the Greek language, especially during New Testament times, was a needed skill as it was used as the standard way of communicating, carrying out business, and so on.

The language was written and used during the early church period to communicate between people who grew up in different areas of the world and whose native tongues were quite different.

The well-known Jewish historian of the New Testament period, Josephus, stated that the ability to speak Greek was very common not only among the general populous but also among servants and slaves.

Some evidence that Christ spoke the language does exist in the New Testament. Jesus utilized at least two Grecian words for love in his well-known post-resurrection conversation with Peter regarding how much he loved him. He used the word agape, which is a deep love and phileo, which is brotherly love toward someone we like (see John 21: 15 - 17). These words have no exact corresponding word either in Old Testament Hebrew or in Aramaic.

Jesus' play on words for "stone" and "rock," while talking with Peter in Matthew 16:18, also uses Grecian words that cannot be replicated in another language.

Mark 7 records the story of a Gentile woman who requested Jesus heal her young daughter. After being initially rebuffed, she persisted with her request. Jesus responded that he was sent to save and serve Israelites and that, "It isn't right to take the children's food and throw it to the dogs" (Mark 7:27).

The New Testament word Jesus used for 'dogs' was the Greek Kunarion (Strong's Concordance #G2952), commonly used in reference to household pets. He could have, but did not, use the much harsher Hebrew term for dogs commonly used by the Jews in their hatred and contempt for Gentiles.

Additionally, Pontius Pilate could well have questioned Jesus in Greek, since few non-Romans in Judea spoke Latin. It is highly unlikely Pilate would have known the local languages of the "despised" and conquered peoples he ruled in the name of the mighty Roman Empire.

Jesus, befitting a Jew raised in 'Galilee of the Gentiles' (Isaiah 9:1), could converse with people of both Jewish and gentile backgrounds.

Since the apostles and evangelists in the early New Testament church wished to reach as large an audience as possible, they chose to write their inspired words in Greek and not Aramaic, Hebrew or some other language. Their choice, given that the Bible is the most popular book ever printed, proved wise indeed. from bible study org.

hope this helps !!!

The few times that Jesus spoke Aramaic are written phonetically in Greek, then translated into Greek.

Mat 7:46 And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? that is to say, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?Mar_15:34
Mark 5:41
(41) And he took the damsel by the hand, and said unto her, Talitha cumi; which is, being interpreted, Damsel, I say unto thee, arise.

Strong in Him · May 1, 2023

Bob corrigan said:
And by the original text, I mean HEBREW! There is absolutely no doubt that all four gospels were written in Hebrew! It has been proven beyond any shadow of a doubt! And it is evident that when those translators translated the original Hebrew into Greek, they changed things and took away things, all to take away the Jewishness of the Gospels!

Can you cite, or provide links to, this "irrefutable evidence"? Can you prove that the translators changed, and removed, things?
Because without it, your post falls flat.

It's not possible to take away the "Jewishness" of the Gospel. The Good News is Jesus - who was Jewish.

Bible Highlighter · May 7, 2023

Bob corrigan said:
And by the original text, I mean HEBREW! There is absolutely no doubt that all four gospels were written in Hebrew! It has been proven beyond any shadow of a doubt! And it is evident that when those translators translated the original Hebrew into Greek, they changed things and took away things, all to take away the Jewishness of the Gospels! They wanted to make the Gospels appeal to Gentiles and appear as if the gospels were originally written in Greek, to a Greek-speaking audience from a Greek cultural background with a Greek philosophical mindset! You can check this out for yourselves at hebrewgospels.com. You can read them for yourselves!
While the Roman Government and Military were modeled and built on Roman thought, the Roman culture was heavily Hellenized! In fact, Rome's paganism was copied from the Greeks! They just changed the names.

They have completed Matthew, Mark, and John. They are still working on Luke. In a number of museums overseas, they have physical copies of Matthew's Hebrew Gospel! Some of the early church Father's saw with their own eyes copies of Matthew's Hebrew Gospel!
As I read the translations of the original Hebrew Gospels, two things happen. The original Hebrew Gospels make so much more sense! And you can easily see where the translators changed the Hebrew!
And you will discover that Yeshua NEVER SAID YOU ARE THE SALT OF THE EARTH! Here is the translation of Mat 5:13 from the Hebrew;

And it happened furthermore that Yesua said unto his talmidim (disciples) You are the instructors of the world, but the instruction is cut off by them who are not saved, and nothing else is left but to cast them (unsaved) to the street to be trampled on.

There it is! That is what Yeshua said in Hebrew, and that is what Matthew wrote down in Hebrew!

While it may sound a little strange, remember that we have all been stuck on the words "salt of the earth." Trying to make sense of Mat 5:13 with the concept of salt has been a struggle for anyone who has tried to discover the original meaning! There are six or seven main explanations of this verse, which are all wrong! It just doesn't make any sense! But in Hebrew, it is easy to understand.
Part of the study of Scripture is to dig in the Old Testament for any reference point that something in the New Testament can be traced back to the O.T. There is also the need to compare verses with other verses teaching the same thing. And that is it! There is nowhere else in the New Testament or the O.T. that calls disciples, believers, teachers, priests, or prophets the "salt of the earth!" It is only mentioned one time in the Greek text! That is why nobody can agree on the meaning! Because nobody who claims to teach Scripture wants ever to admit they "don't know what something means." So they either borrow someone else's explanation or come up with their own based on speculation! Some even give up even trying to figure it out! What a mess. Nobody is right, and everybody is wrong.

Here's another one. In our English versions, Mat 5:9 reads, "Blessed are the peacemakers..." Again, another verse is usually explained by what the teacher "thinks it means." But, again, there is not another mention of peacemakers in all of Scripture. What does the Hebrew read? "Blessed are the men of peace..." Which makes sense and is a theme in Scripture,

Mat 10:131
Mk 9:50 "...have peace with one another."
Lk 1:79, 2:29, 7:50,10:5-6.

Another fact, none of the gospel writers believed in "hell," a place of eternal punishment! The Jews did not have a word describing a place of eternal punishment. Yeshua never used the English word "hell," nor did the gospel writers intend for people to believe that Yeshua believed in a eternal place of punishment!
Just because a translator puts a word into a translation does not mean the inserted word is accurate or that the inserted word is true, a true equal to the original Hebrew word, or even belongs in the translation!
b
Here is another one that will blow your mind! John 1:1 in the Hebrew reads, In the beginning was the Son, and the Son was with God and the Son was God!

Wow, right? Remember, we have been using the English word "Word" for hundreds of years! This has been ingrained in all of us forever! As all of us have memorized John 3:16, we all have memorized John 1:1. But check it out. The Greek word logos is a philosophical word that all Greeks and Gentiles were familiar with. It was a subject much debate among all Gentiles. But the Jews had no concept of logos! No Hebrew describes or is connected to the Greek mystical concept of logos. To the Jews, God's word is God Himself, His Authority, His Power, His Sovereignty!
But as myself and countless others began to study John 1:1, we were already headed in the wrong direction, looking for a Hebrew concept of logos, which doesn't exist! Which can't be found, which always ends up in speculation as to what John 1:1 means!

From this point on, I am going to compare the Hebrew translation against anything I read in Matthew, Mark and John. It will take me more time, but time I won't mind investing. And everytime I come across a glaring error, I will make it known. Here is another example!

John 1:10-11, in our versions, reads, He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not. Vs.11 He came unto his own, and his own received him not.

The way vs. 11 is written conveys the idea that all of the Jews rejected Yeshua, which is a big fat lie! Many thousands of Jews believed on Jeshua, including some of the Pharisees, scribes and priests, for years before the first Gentile became a believer, Cornelius, which didn't happen for 14 years after Yeshua ascended! The translators using the Greek, purposely translated vs 11 in that way to create the thought that all of the Jews stood against Yeshua in order to turn the Gentile readers against the Jews! And if you read my study on baptism, you will get a clearer picture of this movement, which began in the 2nd Century!

How about John 1:12? Our version reads, based on the Greek text, But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name.

Hebrew: Only to all of them who receive him, he gives ability, that they be made sons of EL.

I want to point out that the use of the word "ability" is the true meaning of the word power, every time you see the word power. Power means ability, not "strength," force," or "some supernatural flow of the Holy Spirit!" "As many as" represents those that do, a specific group, not "anybody who wants to."

Man, this is so exciting to me! And crucial from here on out! This discovery floored me! Thrilled me! Awed me!

Scholars or those who think they are scholars will say that certain verses are not in the Bible.
Remember, faith comes by hearing, and hearing the Word of God (Romans 10:17).
We either believe the Bible or we don’t. I do not believe the Bible is a pick and choose your own adventure with us accepting some of what it says and rejecting other parts of it. It’s an all one package deal. I believe all of the Bible.

Also, not all manuscripts say the same thing.
How do you know which manuscripts you are using is the correct one?
Have you researched them all?

Ain't Zwinglian · May 12, 2023

Bible Highlighter said:
Remember, faith comes by hearing, and hearing the Word of God (Romans 10:17).
We either believe the Bible or we don’t. I do not believe the Bible is a pick and choose your own adventure with us accepting some of what it says and rejecting other parts of it. It’s an all one package deal. I believe all of the Bible.

Amen.

I Thes 2:13 For this reason we also constantly thank God that when you received the Word of God which you heard from us, you accepted it not as the word of men, but for what it really is, the Word of God, which also performs its work in you who believe.

I Cor 1:21 For since in the wisdom of God the world through its wisdom did not come to know God, God was well-pleased through the foolishness of the message preached to save those who believe.

James 1:21 Therefore, putting aside all filthiness and all that remains of wickedness, in humility receive the Word implanted, which is able to save your souls.

John 20:30 Therefore many other signs Jesus also performed in the presence of the disciples, which are not written in this book; 31 but these have been written so that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing you may have life in His name.

1 Peter 1:23-25 ...since you have been born again, not of perishable seed but of imperishable, through the living and abiding Word of God; for "All flesh is like grass and all its glory like the flower of grass. The grass withers, and the flower falls, but the Word of the Lord remains forever." And this Word is the good news that was preached to you.

John 6:68 Simon Peter answered Him, “Lord, to whom shall we go? You have Words of eternal life.

Der Alte · May 15, 2023

@Bob corrigan
I think you need to find some different teachers. According to these Early Church Fathers "salt of the earth" was in the oldest manuscripts.

Clement - Rich Man - Ch 27-End [A.D. 30-100] chap XXXVI.

All the faithful, then, are good and godlike, and worthy of the name by which they are encircled as with a diadem. There are, besides, some, the elect of the elect, and so much more or less distinguished by drawing themselves, like ships to the strand, out of the surge of the world and bringing themselves to safety; not wishing to seem holy, and ashamed if one call them so; hiding in the depth of their mind the ineffable mysteries, and disdaining to let their nobleness be seen in the world; whom the Word calls “the light of the world, and the salt of the earth.” (Mat_5:13, Mat_5:14)

Irenaeus Against Heresies. [A.D. 120-202.] Book IV.3. Chap XXXI

And while these things were taking place, his wife remained in [the territory of] Sodom, no longer corruptible flesh, but a pillar of salt which endures for ever;104 and by those natural processes105 which appertain to the human race, indicating that the Church also, which is the salt of the earth, (Mat_5:13) has been left behind within the confines of the earth, and subject to human sufferings; and while entire members are often taken away from it, the pillar of salt still endures,106 thus typifying the foundation of the faith which maketh strong, and sends forward, children to their Father.

Clement of Alexandria The Instructor. [Paedagogus.] [a.d. 153-193-217.] Book III. Chap. VI

For if it is proper mystically “in the closet” to pray to God, it will follow that we are also to greet mystically our neighbour, whom we are commanded to love second similarly to God, within doors, “redeeming the time.” “For we are the salt of the earth.” (Mat_5:13) “Whosoever shall bless his friend early in the, morning with a loud voice, shall be regarded not to differ from cursing.” (Pro_27:14)

Origen Against Celsus. Book VIII. [a.d. 185-230-254.] Chap. LXX.

For men of God are assuredly the salt of the earth: they preserve the order of the world;29 and society is held together as long as the salt is uncorrupted: for “if the salt have lost its savour, it is neither fit for the land nor for the dunghill; but it shall be cast out, and trodden under foot of men. He that hath ears, let him hear” (Luk_14:34, Luk_14:35; Mat_5:13) the meaning of these words, When God gives to the tempter permission to persecute us, then we suffer persecution; and when God wishes us to be free from suffering, even in the midst of a world that hates us, we enjoy a wonderful peace, trusting in the protection of Him who said, “Be of good cheer, I have overcome the world.” (Joh_16:33)

Gregory Thompson · May 15, 2023

Reverse Marcionism is a little surreal to behold ..

Der Alte · May 15, 2023

Ain't Zwinglian said:
Amen.
I Thes 2:13 For this reason we also constantly thank God that when you received the Word of God which you heard from us, you accepted it not as the word of men, but for what it really is, the Word of God, which also performs its work in you who believe.
I Cor 1:21 For since in the wisdom of God the world through its wisdom did not come to know God, God was well-pleased through the foolishness of the message preached to save those who believe.
James 1:21 Therefore, putting aside all filthiness and all that remains of wickedness, in humility receive the Word implanted, which is able to save your souls.
John 20:30 Therefore many other signs Jesus also performed in the presence of the disciples, which are not written in this book; 31 but these have been written so that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing you may have life in His name.
1 Peter 1:23-25 ...since you have been born again, not of perishable seed but of imperishable, through the living and abiding Word of God; for "All flesh is like grass and all its glory like the flower of grass. The grass withers, and the flower falls, but the Word of the Lord remains forever." And this Word is the good news that was preached to you.
John 6:68 Simon Peter answered Him, “Lord, to whom shall we go? You have Words of eternal life.

You quoted 1 Peter 1:23 which includes the phrase "eis ton aiona./unto the aion" Some people argue that aion does not mean "eternity" but really means "age."

1 Peter 1:23
(23) Being born again, not of corruptible seed, but of incorruptible, by the word of God, which liveth and abideth for ever.[εἰς τὸν αἰῶνα]

In this verse Peter said the incorruptible [seed] by the word of God lives and abides eis ton aiona, literally "unto eternity." Peter defined/described "aion" as "eternity" by paralleling "aion" with incorruptible.

JSRG · May 20, 2023

Bob corrigan said:
And by the original text, I mean HEBREW! There is absolutely no doubt that all four gospels were written in Hebrew! It has been proven beyond any shadow of a doubt!

The idea of all of the Gospels being written in Hebrew is an extremely fringe position held by basically no scholar I am aware of (the idea that Matthew was is held by some, but not that all were). To claim that there is "absolutely no doubt" and "proven beyond any shadow of doubt" is clearly not true.

Bob corrigan said:
And it is evident that when those translators translated the original Hebrew into Greek, they changed things and took away things, all to take away the Jewishness of the Gospels! They wanted to make the Gospels appeal to Gentiles and appear as if the gospels were originally written in Greek, to a Greek-speaking audience from a Greek cultural background with a Greek philosophical mindset! You can check this out for yourselves at hebrewgospels.com. You can read them for yourselves!

The "Hebrew Gospels" that the site refers to are found in the "Vat. Ebr. 100" manuscript and are regarded not as any sort of Hebrew original, but translations into Hebrew from Catalan (a Romance language spoken in some areas of eastern Spain). Rather surprisingly... the site, even while trying to hold them up as better than the Greek versions, seems to acknowledge the fact they are a translation from Catalan. Their contention is that the Catalan version it was translated from is a translation of the actual Hebrew original gospels. So even if they are right (which is a big if for a number of reasons), what you are holding up as the "original Hebrew" gospels is actually just a Hebrew translation of a Catalan translation of the original Hebrew.

Interestingly, those claims got brought up at stackexchange at Hebrew Gospels vat. ebr. 100. Obviously, stackexchange is not exactly a scholarly source itself. But some of the responses there do link to more scholarly sources concerning this manuscript, by people who are much more credentialed, such as this one (also available here) or this one.

Bob corrigan said:
While the Roman Government and Military were modeled and built on Roman thought, the Roman culture was heavily Hellenized! In fact, Rome's paganism was copied from the Greeks! They just changed the names.

They have completed Matthew, Mark, and John. They are still working on Luke. In a number of museums overseas, they have physical copies of Matthew's Hebrew Gospel! Some of the early church Father's saw with their own eyes copies of Matthew's Hebrew Gospel!
As I read the translations of the original Hebrew Gospels, two things happen. The original Hebrew Gospels make so much more sense! And you can easily see where the translators changed the Hebrew!

While there are references to a Hebrew Gospel of Matthew by some early Christians, none make this claim about the other Gospels. If anything their (possibly erroneous) claims of a Hebrew Gospel only disprove the other Gospels as having been written in Hebrew, for if that were the case why not mention those instead of just Matthew?

The rest of your post is largely just cases of claiming that the alleged original Hebrew gospels are better because they fix up some alleged errors of the New Testament, but such does not prove anything about their originality. However, there is one I wish to respond to as it seems especially odd to claim:

Bob corrigan said:
John 1:10-11, in our versions, reads, He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not. Vs.11 He came unto his own, and his own received him not.

The way vs. 11 is written conveys the idea that all of the Jews rejected Yeshua, which is a big fat lie! Many thousands of Jews believed on Jeshua, including some of the Pharisees, scribes and priests, for years before the first Gentile became a believer, Cornelius, which didn't happen for 14 years after Yeshua ascended! The translators using the Greek, purposely translated vs 11 in that way to create the thought that all of the Jews stood against Yeshua in order to turn the Gentile readers against the Jews! And if you read my study on baptism, you will get a clearer picture of this movement, which began in the 2nd Century!

So the claim here is that the Greek translators rendered it that way in order to convey "the idea that all of the Jews rejected Yeshua." If so, it brings up the rather obvious question of why they didn't also excise all the times we clearly saw individual Jews accept Jesus. The much more plausible explanation for the dissonance is that John 1:10-11 is not referring to each and every Jewish person, but the Jewish people in general, who indeed did reject Jesus. Certainly their leadership did.

Strong in Him · May 21, 2023

JSRG said:
The idea of all of the Gospels being written in Hebrew is an extremely fringe position held by basically no scholar I am aware of (the idea that Matthew was is held by some, but not that all were). To claim that there is "absolutely no doubt" and "proven beyond any shadow of doubt" is clearly not true.

Agreed.
As the OP has not returned to his thread to present, or discuss, this "irrefutable evidence", I'd say that his position was tenuous.

Der Alte · May 21, 2023

Strong in Him said:
Agreed.
As the OP has not returned to his thread to present, or discuss, this "irrefutable evidence", I'd say that his position was tenuous.

At best!

Andrewn · May 21, 2023

PsaltiChrysostom said:
The only reference to a NT book being written in Hebrew is Matthew's Gospel. This is mentioned by Papias, Jerome, Origen and Irenaeus.

Matthew also issued a written gospel among the Hebrews in their own dialect.
— Irenaeus, Against Heresies 3:1

We don't know what this book contained or anything else about it. IMHO, this is probably the Q-source for the synoptic Gospels.

It is also possible that the Greek Gospel of Matthew is dependent on or a translation of the Gospel of the Nazarenes:

Gospel of the Nazarenes - Wikipedia

en.wikipedia.org

"You are the salt of the earth" IS NOT IN THE ORIGINAL TEXT!

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