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How I understand the bible isn't from tradition but from studying the bible. It's really not all that complicated. I read, I pray, I read, I pray, I contemplate, I ask questions, I balance answers with what I've read, etc. Throw in a dash of context and you've got yourself a receipe for understanding scripture ;-)
God always blesses us THROUGH men.
The Scriptures were even given 'through' men.
WE are His BODY in every sense of that word...
Christ's (many membered) body.
He has nothing else to use but us.. well and donkeys i guess.
kidding ya know.
Ok then, tell me what led you to believe he is referring solely to the written word in this context, and why the distinction from the other forms of word?
How I understand the bible isn't from tradition but from studying the bible. It's really not all that complicated. I read, I pray, I read, I pray, I contemplate, I ask questions, I balance answers with what I've read, etc. Throw in a dash of context and you've got yourself a receipe for understanding scripture
How you interpret it is dependant upon you (and your church). But the 'proofs' of that interpretation then rely on circular logic - you come to a conclusion because you do because you do.
I look to the church that put the bible together in the first place
Other posters have asserted that that church doesn't exist anymore. Shall we go through the changes?
Does this mean you think Christ lied about the Church being led by the Spirit until His return? That the gates of hades will not prevail against it? If we do not have the true Church, we do not have the faith preserved from the beginning. And that would be quite a travesty and would make Christ's work and teachings that He entrusted to the Apostles to hand down to the Church worthless. Why would God go through all of that just to have the Church fall apart?
<playing the protestant> well that is why we have a bible which contains all that is necessary which was handed down by the apostles.
Yes, except taking the Bible out of its proper place in Holy Tradition is not biblical.
That's patently false.
Certainly He uses scripture and of course He goes beyond it. After all, He is the author of the NT.Certainly he uses Scripture, but his lesson goes beyond it.
The Greek conjunction δὲ rendered here as "but" is a weak adversative not for contrast but for development. If the strong adversative αλλα would have been used then you could have a point.For instance he gets people to think about Leviticus 19:18 which says....
"Do not seek revenge or bear a grudge against anyone among your people, but love your neighbor as yourself. I am the LORD."
Here's how Jesus does this...
Matthew 5:43 “You have heard that it was said, ‘Love your neighbor and hate your enemy.’ 44 But I tell you, love your enemies and pray for those who persecute you
He directly refers to Scripture and tells us how it doesn't say all that he wills
The conjunction "But" is used to provide contrast.
If he was a sola scripturist then he would have had to stop the lesson at Matthew 5:43 and not go beyond it.
Yes, except taking the Bible out of its proper place in Holy Tradition is not biblical.
Verse please?
*you knew that was coming*
We're not the one's claiming that everythi8ng required to live a christian life is found explicitly in the bible...
That is not what she said.
Yes, except taking the Bible out of its proper place in Holy Tradition is not biblical.
She is merely stating here that sola scriptura is not biblical. Therefore, it is up to the sola scripturian to show that it is biblical.
The bible doesn't have a proper place in Holy Tradition, it transcends it. Only the bible is the authority. You have a misunderstanding regarding the relationship between scriptures and tradition. There is nothing wrong with tradition as long as it is biblical. When traditions deviate, as they have, then it is to be discarded. Jesus tried to teach the Pharisees that since tradition is easily corrupted.
One thing I am curious about.
If Paul truly meant by saying:
that scripture (OT) alone is all that is required for the believer to become righteous/perfect, then why did he go around preaching things that were not found in scripture? Why didn't he just stay a faithful Jew if he thought that everything necessary for salvation was already found in the old testament? Is he preaching one way and behaving another? Further, why aren't sola scripturians practicing jews instead? Why do you need the NT at all if the OT is sufficient?
It is obvious that he is referring to the OT here, as there was no other writing that was considered to be scripture outside of the OT that he could possibly be referring to at the time he penned this letter. To assume otherwise is to assert evidence that simply does not exist.
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