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Eudaimonist

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If Causality is temporally bound then it provides a way for God to create OUR space and time dimensions.

The above reads like gibberish. What does any of that have to do with a second arrow of time as speculated by physicists?

Though actually you have not proven that causality cannot occur in timelessness.

Is that a diversion? I don't see what that issue has to do with a second arrow of time either.


eudaimonia,

Mark
 
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Ed1wolf

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He was responding to a letter in the Letters section. You may have to look in their archived entire issues to find it.


But again your mind is not part of your arm. So my statement stands that the cause was not part of the effect.


No, those are not effects of your mind, they are states of your mind that are caused by things external to you either imaginary or real.


Well your view goes against most cosmologists. Most scientists agree as demonstrated by Dr. Goldsmith and some of the others I cited that it is an effect. Now of course, most don't think that that cause is God. The majority view is that it was caused by a quantum fluctuation. But that cannot be correct, because quantum events require an interval of time to occur but at time=0 there was no time for it occur.


Well, I guess I misunderstood. I thought you were saying that the causes of the universe were internal to the universe. Thanks for the explanation.

ed: Given that so far it has always worked in science, it is irrational and unscientific to abandon logic with ANY unknown.

eud: Science =/= logic. Science involves logic, to be sure, but simply offering logical arguments is not science.
True, but throughout the history of science as I demonstrated earlier when encountering unknowns utilizing logic almost always produces the answer.
 
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Rebecca12

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No, I am telling you to read the study I posted.

For me, a study implies some kind of experiment rather than math. Strominger does theoretical, not experimental physics. He uses ideas from string theory to provide potential resolutions of various problems in physics. String theory itself is not proven. There is no experiment to test the hypothesis.
 
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Rebecca12

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I would say that most physicists haven't touched the origins issue because it is so theoretical and the near if not absolute impossibility of testing any theory about the origin of everything. A man's gotta know his limitations.
 
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Eudaimonist

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He was responding to a letter in the Letters section. You may have to look in their archived entire issues to find it.

I can't find it.

Most scientists agree as demonstrated by Dr. Goldsmith and some of the others I cited that it is an effect.

I can't read Dr. Goldsmith's own words on the subject in context, so I'm left without any way to continue with that line of conversation.


eudaimonia,

Mark
 
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Ed1wolf

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No, Stanley Jaki and Jones and Wilson, in "An Incomplete Education" say that it does apply to cosmology and the metaphysical. "the application of the GIT to cosmology shows that a disproof of the contingency of the universe is impossible. The mental road to the extracosmic Absolute remains therefore fully open." Read "The Absolute Beneath the Relative." in the Intercollegiate Review 1985.


Fraid so, see above.

Yes, we would have the same problem in the "super" natural world also. That would become our work after we leave this universe at death just as the bible seems to predict.
 
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Eudaimonist

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Again, this is about epistemology. The quote is talking about "disproof" and "mental roads". At no point do they write that the GIT actually supports or points to an "extracosmic Absolute" or "the contingency of the universe", but merely that one can't say that there is some necessary contradiction between that and the formal maths of physics.

The problem is that you are trying to make this into a gigantic Argument from Ignorance.

Fraid so, see above.

The quote DOES NOT mention anything about "non-natural explanations". An "extracosmic Absolute" can be perfectly natural.


eudaimonia,

Mark
 
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Ed1wolf

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What I meant is that they cannot reach full function without each other, IOW they are not completely independent of each other.


ed: The mind has some connection to the brain but it is not totally tied to the physical

tm: How so?

See above.

ed: The mind can operate according to the laws of logic

tm: What does that mean?

The mind can weigh arguments and evidence and make logical conclusion based on the premises of those arguments evidence. But if the mind is purely physically based then its conclusions are based on the ratio of chemical reagents in the brain just like any chemical reaction and not on the weighing of arguments.

ed: , the brain like any physical entity can only operate according to the laws of physics

tm: On that, we agree.
If you believe the mind is purely physical based then your view is self refuting as shown above.


ed: Also the placebo effect is evidence that the mind is not totally tied to the physical.

tm: How so?

Because that means that a nonphysical treatment can cure a physical entity.


Not all NDEs. There are cases where the person gained knowledge that they could not have by natural physical means. For example a woman discovered that there was a specific shoe on the roof of a hospital that she was in, and yet she physically never went on the roof. And if transgenderism is real then there are male minds in female brains and bodies and vice versa. Apparently totally unaffected by being in physically female body.

ed: In addition, a purely physical mind is self refuting.

tm: How so?
See above.
 
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Eudaimonist

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The mind can weigh arguments and evidence and make logical conclusion based on the premises of those arguments evidence.

All that means is that minds (that is, people) can be logical, at least if they choose to be logical. The mind can also contain contradictory thoughts. Reality cannot contradict itself, and presumably the nature of minds (as part of reality) cannot contradict itself or anything else, but the operation of the mind can generate logical contradictions. People can be illogical.

But if the mind is purely physically based then its conclusions are based on the ratio of chemical reagents in the brain just like any chemical reaction and not on the weighing of arguments.

I don't know of anyone who thinks that the brain's operations "are based on the ratio of chemical reagents" in itself, any more than a computer's operations are based on the ratio of metal to germanium in its CPU. You are attacking a straw man.

If you believe the mind is purely physical based then your view is self refuting as shown above.

I don't accept your straw man view of brain function.

Because that means that a nonphysical treatment can cure a physical entity.

No, it means that there is a relationship between brain function and the rest of the body.


Those claims are dubious anecdotes. They belong to the realm of pseudoscience.

And if transgenderism is real then there are male minds in female brains and bodies and vice versa. Apparently totally unaffected by being in physically female body.

You are talking about psychological conditions. Gender dysphoria has been linked to some extent to genetics. Why would that be if "male minds" and "female minds" are completely non-physical?

Gender dysphoria - Wikipedia


eudaimonia,

Mark
 
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TagliatelliMonster

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What I meant is that they cannot reach full function without each other, IOW they are not completely independent of each other.

But you're still treating them as seperate entities.


The physical brain activity, is how you do your thinking.
Those are the underlying physical processes of how that works.

Why is that a problem?

If you believe the mind is purely physical based then your view is self refuting as shown above.

I don't "believe" anything.
I only go by what the evidence suggests.
And what the evidence siggests is that that which you call a "mind" is no more or less then a function of the physical brain.

I don't see how any of this is "self-refuting".

Because that means that a nonphysical treatment can cure a physical entity.

You might want to read up on what the placebo effect actually is.
It doesn't cure anything! Placebo's, in essence, are no more then self-deception.
There is no curing going on.


Anecdotal evidence isn't exactly enough to convince me of outlandish claims like that.

And if transgenderism is real then there are male minds in female brains and bodies and vice versa.

For crying out loud....
Do you realise that the difference between males and females is biological?
And that that difference isn't restricted to just reproductive organs, but also brain chemicals, hormones, etc?

See above.

There's nothing there, there.
 
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Ed1wolf

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No, see the statements by Jaki and others I quoted.

eud: There are scientists who believe in something supernatural or divine, and yet are employed.

Not many that claim that science points in that direction. And ones that do, don't last long as shown in a couple of books and films that document that fact.

eud: Of the rest, there are far better reasons to reject the supernatural than mere employment issues.
Yes, a large number reject it for more personal reasons such as not wanting to be held accountable for how they spend their time and their sex lives.


eud: It doesn't mean that we can, either. That is just the Argument from Ignorance, which is pretty much what your entire arguments rests on.


eudaimonia,

Mark
No, it is actually an argument from knowledge, we know that effects require causes.
 
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Ed1wolf

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@Ed1wolf
Nothing what you said make any sense and just makes it more confusing then necessarily.
Ask me a question about anything you don't understand and I will be happy to explain it to you.
 
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Eudaimonist

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Yes, a large number reject it for more personal reasons such as not wanting to be held accountable for how they spend their time and their sex lives.

Citation needed. I'm sure that you must have a study that shows this, and you aren't just inventing this from your imagination.

If you are just trying to be snarky, well done.

No, it is actually an argument from knowledge, we know that effects require causes.

That's just a matter of definition.

By definition effects are the results of causes. This is not knowledge in and of itself. It begs the question of just what is an effect or a cause in a particular case. That is where knowledge comes in -- identifying effects and causes.

For instance, according to the quote you have provided, the GIT only implies that an extracosmic cause of our cosmos isn't going to be provably inconsistent with any consistent mathematics of the physics of the cosmos. It doesn't show that there is an extracomic cause of our cosmos. It is an argument from ignorance to conclude that there is one using the GIT.


eudaimonia,

Mark
 
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Ed1wolf

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No, if the mind is purely physically based then it is just chemical reactions, right? And Chemistry 101 tells us that the product of a chemical reaction is determined by ratio of the reagents in the reaction. Therefore, the mind cannot actually weigh arguments or evidence, it is just an illusion of the predetermined chemical processes.

ed: Your entire argument is self refuted if the mind is purely physical.

tm: It is not.

Yes, because your belief in a physical mind is just based on the chemical makeup of your brain and not based on any consideration of evidence but rather predetermined at birth by your brain chemistry.


How does a chemical reaction produce a product WITHOUT being based on the ratio of the reagents
in the reaction?

tm: Just like how the molecular sturcture and contractions of your biceps are the physical underpinnings of how you lift your arm.
But your arm can't reason so there is no problem there. We are talking about logical reasoning compared to chemical reactions.
 
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TagliatelliMonster

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No, if the mind is purely physically based then it is just chemical reactions, right?

The underlying process is physical, yes. Bio-chemistry, to be exact.
Just like the underlying process of an AI engine is "just" the processing of 1s and 0s.


You should read up on neurology and neural networks.

Yes, because your belief in a physical mind is just based on the chemical makeup of your brain and not based on any consideration of evidence but rather predetermined at birth by your brain chemistry.

Your entire argument smells like a species of genetic fallacy.

How does a chemical reaction produce a product WITHOUT being based on the ratio of the reagents in the reaction?

You are confusing a function of the brain, with physical output of a chemical reaction.

But your arm can't reason so there is no problem there. We are talking about logical reasoning compared to chemical reactions.

Here's a simple question: do you accept that your brain is where your reasoning/thinking happens?
 
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Ed1wolf

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I am talking about how the mind works now, not the universe. The universe operates logically but it cannot reason logically. If your mind is totally physical then it cannot truly reason. Its conclusions are determined by the chemical reactions in your brain not logical reasoning.

No, we are talking about the basic laws of chemistry. We know from Chemistry 101 that the products of chemical reactions are determined by the ratio of the reagents. So if the mind is entirely physical then its conclusions are based on those reactions, which cannot weigh evidence and arguments.
 
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Ed1wolf

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Huh? The whole field of Cosmogony is based on that assumption.
 
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Ed1wolf

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I can't find it.



I can't read Dr. Goldsmith's own words on the subject in context, so I'm left without any way to continue with that line of conversation.


eudaimonia,

Mark
Most all cosmologists that engage in the study of cosmogony believe it is an effect.
 
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