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Exploring Christianity
Why Jesus is divine only in John?
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<blockquote data-quote="Duvduv" data-source="post: 72567936" data-attributes="member: 408706"><p>Excuse me, but I don't see the straw man. Everywhere you look you find the doctrine (including in the Epistles) that salvation is available only through Jesus Christ. Nothing is said why this is so only after the year 33 AD. And since the Gospel of John makes it clear that Jesus is the Word made flesh, and he was crucified for the sins of mankind, one can only ask why the same scriptures do not explain why this is necessary now and not for the rest of history in the past, and if it wasn't necessary, then surely it doesn't have to be necessary now either. This is not resolved in the Christian scriptures.</p></blockquote><p></p>
[QUOTE="Duvduv, post: 72567936, member: 408706"] Excuse me, but I don't see the straw man. Everywhere you look you find the doctrine (including in the Epistles) that salvation is available only through Jesus Christ. Nothing is said why this is so only after the year 33 AD. And since the Gospel of John makes it clear that Jesus is the Word made flesh, and he was crucified for the sins of mankind, one can only ask why the same scriptures do not explain why this is necessary now and not for the rest of history in the past, and if it wasn't necessary, then surely it doesn't have to be necessary now either. This is not resolved in the Christian scriptures. [/QUOTE]
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Why Jesus is divine only in John?
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