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It is interesting to note that the Hebrew word for "man" in this verse (also in Gen. 1:26 & 27), and the Hebrew word for "Adam," in Gen. 2:19, where we first find that name, are the same. The Hebrew word is: 'âdâm. It means "human being," or "first man."
A little off topic,but I'm curioius, since I don't know Hebrew. What feature of the Hebrew in Gen. 2:19 indicates that adam here is a proper name rather than the word "man"? I have seen it translated both ways.
I can't answer the Hebrew part but I can't tell you that we can know for certain it was a proper name because of how else it is used in the Bible.
Job 31:33 If I covered my transgressions as Adam, by hiding mine iniquity in my bosom:
Luke 3:38 Which was the son of Enos, which was the son of Seth, which was the son of Adam, which was the son of God.
Romans 5:14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.
Is this statement really true?
I guess what we're talking about is the "process" by which man came to be. Evolution contends it was a process starting with an extremely simple lifeform (they won't define what it was or how it came to be in the first place), which over millions of years of reproduction, through "natural selection" and "beneficial" mutation, slowly and gradually evolved into a man. The Bible contends that there was not much process to it. God picked up some dirt, fashioned it in the form of a man, and breathed life into him.
The Bible indicates that God created a specific, first person, whose name is known as Adam, whose history is told and remembered, and that he was created whole and complete in one act.
It's simply not credible to believe that the God of the Bible, a God of means, power, and purpose, who provides and cares for men so much that he sent his only Son to earth to provide the means for their salvation, would have created men through the process of randomness that is evolution. There is no room for evolution in the Bible, theistic or otherwise.
In regards to the fossil record, age of the universe, and other indicators that evolutionists claim support their theory, I have to agree with Biblewriter that the "evidence" is being grossly misinterpreted (or worse) by a large body of scientists. But I am also confident that in the end, the truth will prevail.
I can't answer the Hebrew part but I can't tell you that we can know for certain it was a proper name because of how else it is used in the Bible.
Job 31:33 If I covered my transgressions as Adam, by hiding mine iniquity in my bosom:
Luke 3:38 Which was the son of Enos, which was the son of Seth, which was the son of Adam, which was the son of God.
Romans 5:14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.
A solid doctrine doesn't mean indisputable truth.
A solid doctrine does carry enough weight with regards to how a truth can be considered, 'indisputable'.
I have looked at both sides and I think Creationism holds a lot of cards it has not played.
A solid doctrine doesn't mean indisputable truth.
There is no doubt about the New Testament passages. There is little doubt about the Old Testament one that was cited with book, chapter and verse. From Strong's dictionary:
Job 31:33 (H121 אדם 'âdâm aw-dawm') - Adam, the name of the first man, also of a place in Palestine: - Adam.
I f you'd like, you can check more into the Hebrew here:A little off topic,but I'm curioius, since I don't know Hebrew. What feature of the Hebrew in Gen. 2:19 indicates that adam here is a proper name rather than the word "man"? I have seen it translated both ways.
I
I don't know how they decide which to use, when.
I have summoned help from PrincetonGuy.You and me both. Thanks for the link. But I am left as confused as ever.
I can't see why Strong has listed it twice. The commentary from Gesenius treats them as the same word. (If you check the text under H121 it begins at point (4) obviously carrying on from the three points listed under H120).
Furthermore, although the KJV translates the nine instances of H121 as Adam, other translators don't always.
And in any case, as you noted, Strong lists both occurrences of 'adam' in Gen. 2:19 as H120, the one that can have either translation.
By the way, why are you asking? What difference will it make to your understanding? What are you trying to figure out exactly?Doesn't answer the question. I never suggested it was not a proper name, but it is also a common noun. I agree a genealogy implies a proper name, but that doesn't occur until chapter 5.
The Job passage is not helpful either as it is translated variously, not always with a proper name. e.g. NIV version:
33 if I have concealed my sin as men do, [a]
by hiding my guilt in my heart
So given it has both meanings, what distinguishes the proper name usage from the common noun usage? How do we know we first find the name, not the common noun, in Gen. 2:19 as Adoniram asserts?
By the way, why are you asking? What difference will it make to your understanding? What are you trying to figure out exactly?
I have summoned help from PrincetonGuy.
You and me both. Thanks for the link. But I am left as confused as ever.
I can't see why Strong has listed it twice. The commentary from Gesenius treats them as the same word. (If you check the text under H121 it begins at point (4) obviously carrying on from the three points listed under H120).
Furthermore, although the KJV translates the nine instances of H121 as Adam, other translators don't always.
And in any case, as you noted, Strong lists both occurrences of 'adam' in Gen. 2:19 as H120, the one that can have either translation.
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