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I was not asking if you think simple intellectual assent was sufficient.Simple intellectual assent to the fact of Christ's death and resurrection is not enough to be saved. It is a start, perhaps, but by itself is insufficient to obtain salvation. As the apostle James remarked, "Even the demons believe and tremble."So you are now saying that I don't need to think Jesus died and rose again to escape hell?
It is this sort of reasoning that helps me understand how you came to your erroneous conclusions about the resurrection.
Whether or not I have proved that what I call Scripture is God's Word makes no difference to my point, which was that my beliefs about the resurrection are derived from Scripture.
What about all the historical/ archaeological facts the Bible presents that have been found to be true?
I can show you a fulfilled prophecy that I think is impressive. But what I find impressive and what you find impressive are not necessarily the same thing. Really, it is enough that a prophecy is fulfilled. Whether or not it impresses you is quite beside the point.
This is what Paul reported in 1 Corinthians 15:4-6.
This is what was held to be true by both Tradition and the Early Church Fathers. All affirm that Matthew is the author of the gospel bearing his name. Papias, Clement of Rome, Justin Martyr, Tertullian and Origen, to name a few, all unanimously agreed to Matthew's authorship of his gospel.
This similarity but with small differences seems quite to be expected since they are writing of the same events and person but are two different writers.
It is not "completetly incompatible" but its focus is distinctly different from the other Gospels. John seems far more interested in the deity of Christ, than in the mere recording of events leading up to his resurrection.
Who and where are these people?
Of course. Can you?Can you understand that just because a person offers interpretations of facts, that does not prove his interpretations are rational?
It doesn't prove their interpretation isn't rational, either. So, what's your point?Likewise, one cannot say that since some people interpret the facts as proving there is a resurrection, that does not prove their interpretation is rational.
And how did dying do anything to fix that problem?Why did Jesus have to die? because we are sinful creatures by nature
And how did dying do anything to fix that problem?
Christ was His Father's sacrifice..once He died and rose again, we were no longer bound by death,but have the gift of Salvation, so that we can live in the House of the Lord forever.Read John 3:16.
Aiki,
Are you telling me that you are no longer saying that a person needs to believe in Jesus to escape hell? In post #73 you had said,The only way to escape hell is, as the passage above explains, to become a believer.But now you seem to have denyed twice that one needs to believe in Jesus to escape hell.
When I ask if you will confirm that you are really saying one does not need to believe in Jesus to escape hell, you deflect the question. So can I take it that you now say that one does not need to agree that the death and resurrection of Jesus happened to escape hell?
Whether or not I have proved that what I call Scripture is God's Word makes no difference to my point, which was that my beliefs about the resurrection are derived from Scripture.
Huh? We got here because you had said:
As I have pointed out, my view is Scripturally well-supported. It is, then, not merely my view, or even the view of many, but the revelation of God's Word. You seem very reluctant to make any such acknowledgement.So, yes, you were saying that since these words are scripture, therefore they were God's Words.
So my response was indeed valid: You would need to prove that all books that are included in the set of books you call scripture are indeed God's Word, before you assume that since these words are in scripture, that therefore they are God's Words.
What about the historical facts that Forrest Gump presents that are found to be true?
I do not see how presenting historical facts proves a book is God's Word.
But being wrong on history, which the Bible often is, is strong evidence it is not God's Words.
I am not asking for a prophecy that impresses me.
Well, yes Paul reported that over 500 saw Jesus, but then he says that he, Paul, saw Jesus himself. Paul did not claim to see Jesus bodily, but only that he saw a vision. He in no way distinguishes that these people saw anything more than he saw. He may only be speakin of them seeing a vision.
But we have no writings of any of them saying they saw even a vision. We have only Paul saying they saw it.
Sir, Clement of Rome and Justin Martyr never said that Matthew wrote the book of Matthew. If you think they did, please show me where.
Papias may have said that a Matthew wrote things about Jesus, but he is clearly describing a book other than the book we now ascribe to Matthew
(and the man who said that Papias said this was not reliable, so we are not sure we can believe him that Papias said this)
Tertullian and Origin were after the 180 AD date I quoted.
Yes, exactly we would expect similarity with small differences between Matthew and Mark. I agree.
But that is not what we see. Matthew copies Mark, often word for word. He repeats 90 percent of the verses in Mark. If Matthew and Mark had both turned in these essays as a term project, then it would be obvious that one or the other was cheating, and was copying the other.
The problem for you is that it appears that Matthew copied Mark. If Matthew was an eyewitness--and Mark wasn't--why does Matthew copy from Mark everyplace where Mark speaks? Why doesn't he somtimes write his own first-hand observations?
The flat earth believers? They are on the Internet. See The Flat Earth Society.
My point is that finding that some people interpret facts as validating the resurrection does not prove belief in the resurrection is rational. One must look at the facts, to see if they lead to the conclusion they claim.
One cannot claim that since some people believe this, that therefore their views are rational.
So now you throw in a confusing double-negative?Where do I deny that faith in Christ is unnecessary for salvation?
No, I don't agree that this is so.So can I take it that you now say that one does not need to agree that the death and resurrection of Jesus happened to escape hell?
Excuse me, but where did I ever say anything about salvation being reduced to a single question of history??? You brought this up before, and I told you this is not what I am saying.I also don't agree that salvation can be reduced to a single question of history, which is what it seems to me you are trying to do.
You're sticking on the wrong thing. My view is not self-derived. This was my point. I take my view from what every evangelical Christian I know regards as the Word of God. But even if what I call the Word of God isn't the Word of God, this doesn't change the fact that my views are drawn from it rather than from my own imagination. I made this point because you were referring to my point of view as solely my own, which it wasn't.
So they have found archeolgical evidence for the reigns of Hezekiah and Omri? Yes, of course. Many books of the Bible that deal with the later history of Israel are widely recognized as historical.How many times has the Bible been thought to be wrong on a historical point and then later found to be right? Many times! Here are a few instances:
The Hittites.
The Merneptah Stela.
The House of David Inscription.
The Mesha Stela, or Pharoah Shishak/Shoshenq Victory Lists.
The Ebla Tablets.
The Siloam Tunnel.
And so on.
Each of these archaelogical discoveries vindicates the record of Scripture - sometimes when it was thought certain that the Bible was in error about names, places, and customs.
Oh? That's not what you seem to be saying here:
4. I haven't yet found an impressive fullfilled prophecy. Can you show me one, please?
He may, but this is something you must assume without any support from the passage where he talks about the appearance of Christ to the five hundred. The Gospels make it clear that Christ rose bodily. And Paul himself writes explicitly of Christ's resurrected body. It is, therefore, very unlikely that Paul meant that Jesus had appeared to the five hundred in a collective vision.
I didn't say that they did, but only that they affirm the view of Tradition that Matthew was the author of the Gospel bearing his name.Sir, Clement of Rome and Justin Martyr never said that Matthew wrote the book of Matthew. If you think they did, please show me where.
"Clearly" is a distortion of the facts. The debate over what Papias meant by "logia" is hardly concluded in favor of your position. In fact, there is good reason to think he meant "gospel" and not simply "sayings" when he used the term "logia."
[FONT=Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif]"Does the word translated above as "sayings" (logia) mean that or "gospel"? That it could mean the latter is implied by Papias' use of the word in the title of his work, Interpretation of the Lord's Logia: it is arguable that Papias means "gospels" by logia. This is strengthened by the fact that Papias claimed that Mark made an arrangement of the logia of the Lord, the result of which is the Gospel of Mark. Clearly, the logia include not only what Jesus said but also what he did ("the things said or done by the Lord")"[/FONT]
LOL! What a slant you've given to the facts! There are ancient letters which criticise Eusebius and others which extol his virtues. There is by no means a unanimous consensus that Eusebius was utterly untrustworthy.
I'm not particularly interested in confining myself to the parameters you chose to establish. I don't argue according to your restrictions.Tertullian and Origin were after the 180 AD date I quoted
But it is an assumption that Matthew copied from Mark. It could easily be the other way around.
Matthew does offer his own first-hand observations and additions to Mark's account. His Gospel is longer than Mark's, after all.
If I am mistaken in my view of history, how can God condemn me to eternal torture with no possibility of escape, simply because I got the "wrong" answer on a history exam?
Recently Aiki seems to be backing down on that claim, although there has been so much two-stepping going on here, its hard to tell what he is saying.
Of course Muslims disagree with Aiki, and they argue the exact opposite, that Aiki is eternally doomed for failing to agree about the Quran.
I am just glad to be free from all that. I no longer believe that there is a hell that I must plan to escape. I can dedicate my life to living in harmony with the world and those around me, without fear.
And yet you know there is a different conclusion (Islam) to which you might reasonably come - as many others have done - yet you choose to adopt a view that has the eternal ramifications that it does, yes?Because you are not mistaken in the way a person who is ignorant of a fact might be mistaken. You know there is a different conclusion to which you might reasonably come - as many others have done - yet you choose to adopt a view that has the eternal ramifications that it does.
For this conscious, willful choice you will be held responsible by God and judged. Why should you not?
If there has been any two-stepping or obfuscation it has been on your part, not mine.
Especially in the contortions of Scripture that you have made you are acutely guilty of blatantly faulty thinking and arguing.
And if I am wrong, then I will bear the consequences of my choices concerning what I believe just as you must. I will not attempt a lame excuse such as the one you use above to escape personal responibility for my choices.
And that plan to escape the tortures of hell involves believing that Jesus died and rose again? And that plan is not available to those who think this is not history (unless they start thinking these events are historical)?I have escaped hell by the plan God has made for me to do so. I don't live my life in fear.
I am glad to be rid of this discussion.
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