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Why are the Orthodox being taught this? [Moved from OBOB]

Eucharisted

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If a Pope ever says something that isn't Catholic doctrine, he is speaking his own mind, and heresy if what he says is not according to Catholic doctrine. The argument over what Pope said what on the papacy is fallacious, based on a misunderstanding of papal infallibility. Because it is a fallacy, it is void.
The Catechism

Infallibility
charism of infallibility must be extended, 2035
of the Church, 889-91
of the Magisterium of the Pastors, 2051
of the Supreme Pontiff, 891
 
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benedictaoo

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The "Universal Bishop" Controversy -- Pope Gregory the Great and John (the Faster) of Constantinople

Interesting.
 
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benedictaoo

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CNS STORY: Vatican removes title 'patriarch of the West' after pope's name

interesting.
 
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benedictaoo

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Seems so.




Infallibility covers teaching authority. The pope is the supreme pontiff over both east and west but he does not interfere in their affairs unless there is a dispute, then he is the final court to settle it.

Then what he says, goes. But that's not infallibility, it's just his authority as being the head bishop. Supream pontiff.

This is how I understand it. The eastern Catholics look to their patriarch and he is who sheppards them but the pope has as final word if there is a conflict or a dispute or if they are teaching funny stuff.

IOW, they have their autonomy over their jurisdictions but they can't do their own thing when it comes to matters of doctrine nor can they decided to boot the pope out. he is who is over all the Church and that's just the way it is.
 
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Etsi

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I would have to say that it is natural that any Roman Catholic site would avoid posting this quote as it goes against what a Roman Catholic believes. Now if you want to know why the Orthodox are taught this, why don't you come over to The Ancient Way part of the forum and ask the Orthodox
 
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Eucharisted

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I did. I got reported.
 
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Joshua G.

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I can understand this and it makes sense, but realize that not one Orthodox is arguing that SINCE it was a POPE that said it, it must true. Remember, we don't hold a concept of a RULE of infallibility granted to the Pope. So, what you call "fallacious" (and I agree it would be) is not an argument an Orthodox would ever make any more than a Catholic would make the argumetn that "since it's not in the bible, it's not true" which would be a protestant argument. Similarily, the fallacious argument is only one a confused Catholic would make (to be sure, it is not a Catholic argument to say this, but only a catholic could fall into the error of overinfallible-izing (heheh) the Pope, not an Orthodox).
 
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Philothei

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Originally Posted by Eucharisted


Just curious as to how do the RC knows if the Pope speaks 'ex cathedra" or he is in fallacy? Since anything he says should be true?? I am just wondering as it is true that some Popes have indeed been defroked fro being "heretical".... Is the "khouria" then to keep the checks and ballancies of what is 'heretical" and what is not? I have heard of that before I guess maybe you can shed some light on this

ETA: would it mean that the "formulated" dogma has to agree with the existing dogma? Is that what you are saying?
 
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Eucharisted

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Beyond what's in the Catechism, I don't know much about infallibility. I haven't studied it as much. But I know human beings have opinions, the Pope included. And I know the first Bishops (Apostles) were weak, so we must expect weakness from our Bishops, while at the same time hoping for their holiness and salvation. And I know it's speculated that infallibility follows a sort of formula way of speaking, like the royal We and so forth. But the best way to know for sure is to ask the Holy See. Write a letter to the Congregation for the Doctrine of the Faith, they'll give you a reply within three months at most and two weeks at least.
 
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MoNiCa4316

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This quote doesn't go against the Papacy at all.

let's examine it in detail.......
he's saying that:

1. his definition of "universal bishop" here is: "sole bishop". But the Pope never considered himself to be the sole bishop. So he can't be talking about the Papacy (but replying to the other bishop who wanted to be placed first).
2. "hath not the venerable Council of Chalcedon conferred the honorary title of 'universal' upon the bishops of this Apostolic See [Rome], whereof I am, by God's will, the servant?" - he is saying that the Council of Chalcedon has declared the Pope to be the "universal bishop".
3. In the third bolded part, - he's saying, once again, that the problem is when someone declares himself to be the SOLE bishop, and denies this role to others. (not anything the Pope does).
 
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Thekla

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IIRC, the title of "universal" is used by the papal legates in the trial of Dioscorus at Chalcedon; its use is entirely limited to this.

This use in this context may refer to the role of Rome as place of last appeal in legal matters (it does not, in the canons, refer to theological matters). Its use solely by the papal legates may be an echo of the interpolation present in the Roman list of the canons of Nicea (the interpolated canon was from a local Council, and did not occur in the list of canons of Nicea held by any of the other Sees).

As to the matter of the canons; the canons have never been treated as dogmatic (theological) treatments in the east. I do not know what status the canons have in the west.
 
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MoNiCa4316

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"The Lord says to Peter: ‘I say to you,’ he says, ‘that you are Peter, and upon this rock I will build my Church, and the gates of hell will not overcome it. And to you I will give the keys of the kingdom of heaven; and whatever things you bind on earth shall be bound also in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth, they shall be loosed also in heaven’ [Matt. 16:18–19]). ... On him [Peter] he builds the Church, and to him he gives the command to feed the sheep [John 21:17], and although he assigns a like power to all the apostles, yet he founded a single chair [cathedra], and he established by his own authority a source and an intrinsic reason for that unity. Indeed, the others were also what Peter was [i.e., apostles], but a primacy is given to Peter, whereby it is made clear that there is but one Church and one chair. So too, all [the apostles] are shepherds, and the flock is shown to be one, fed by all the apostles in single-minded accord. If someone does not hold fast to this unity of Peter, can he imagine that he still holds the faith? If he [should] desert the chair of Peter upon whom the Church was built, can he still be confident that he is in the Church?" (The Unity of the Catholic Church 4; 1st edition [A.D. 251]).

"In the city of Rome the episcopal chair was given first to Peter; the chair in which Peter sat, the same who was head—that is why he is also called Cephas [‘Rock’]—of all the apostles, the one chair in which unity is maintained by all. Neither do the apostles proceed individually on their own, and anyone who would [presume to] set up another chair in opposition to that single chair would, by that very fact, be a schismatic and a sinner. . . . Recall, then, the origins of your chair, those of you who wish to claim for yourselves the title of holy Church" (The Schism of the Donatists 2:2 [A.D. 367]).
 
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Thekla

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The "interpretation" is a compilation of facts that can be found by reading the extant records of the Council of Chalcedon; the matter of Rome as the last recourse for appeal in legal matters can be found in the canons. The interpolation of the canon in the list of Nicean canons by comparing the list of Rome with the list from the other Sees. The difference between theology/dogma and legal issues is evidenced throughout the history of the east -- one may read history on the matter for oneself in extant texts and historical treatments.

The absence of a canonical or dogmatic statement on the significance on the chair of Peter arising from the united Church is instructive.
 
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