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Jesus was called "the Son of God" because ...
He was "fathered" by God the Word and/or God the Holy Spirit.
Could John mean: sinning when in the flesh, no sinning when in the Spirit?As far as I can tell from the interlinear, "sin" is an ordinary active verb. It can mean continuing action, but I think these translations are pressing that. The context makes it pretty clear that to John, someone who is in Christ can't sin, so it would be odd for him to shade that meaning. I suggest that what's really going on is that John understands that no one in this life is completely and always in Christ. So he really does say no one in Christ sins, but we're to understand it as being in effect "to the extent that we are in Christ, we don't sin." Note verse 3:3, which implies that we're not yet pure.
Yes, but only if you take into account.the special sense of flesh and spirit in passages like this. Sin isn’t caused by our bodies.Could John mean: sinning when in the flesh, no sinning when in the Spirit?
Please note the sin lists in the NT.
Paul says people doing these thing will NOT enter the kingdom of God.
And my favorite is Revelation 21:8 ... IMO, this applies to everyone!
Those who do any of these sins will be cast into the lake of fire.
No, of course not ... we're talking about a free-will choice to sin!Yes, but only if you take into account the special sense of flesh and spirit in passages like this.
Sin isn’t caused by our bodies.
The stain of sin is passed to the next generation from Adam not Eve. That's why Jesus could not be the child of any man.Okay, Joseph wasn't allowed to play the role of Jesus' father!
Because of his DNA?
But, Mary was allowed to pass her DNA along?
So, Jesus received only 1/2 of the normal DNA passed along from parents?
So then, how was He fully human?
Okay, but original sin being passed down is a whole other deep topic.The stain of sin is passed to the next generation from Adam not Eve.
That's why Jesus could not be the child of any man.
The Trinity is eternal, so God was always Father and Son. That means that in eternity, God experiences the love between father and son. (You can't completely describe God in human terms, so this is probably somewhat metaphorical.) Why is Christ said to be the incarnation of the Son specifically, and not God as a whole or the Father? Because Christ shows us the obedience love of the Son. But the point I'm trying to make is that the relationship between Jesus and the Father is the visible form of the relationship in eternity between the Father and the eternal Son. So Jesus' father is the Father, just like the eternal Son's father is the Father.Aaaah, sister ...
The titles/names "Jesus" and "Son of God" (given by Gabriel) began at the Incarnation.
Jesus was called "the Son of God" because ...
He was "fathered" by God the Word and/or God the Holy Spirit.
John 17:5 is Jesus praying to the Father (nothing about the Son of God).
Many people today have been called and anointed by God.
Christ (Greek) = Messiah (Hebrew).
I think they're wrong. I have two commentaries, neither of which takes this approach.
I believe they're concerned about the apparent contradiction with John's realization elsewhere that Christians do sin, and they try to resolve it by giving a shade to the meaning that isn't necessarily there. As far as I can tell from the interlinear, "sin" is an ordinary active verb. It can mean continuing action, but I think these translations are pressing that.
The context makes it pretty clear that to John, someone who is in Christ can't sin, so it would be odd for him to shade that meaning.
I suggest that what's really going on is that John understands that no one in this life is completely and always in Christ. So he really does say no one in Christ sins, but we're to understand it as being in effect "to the extent that we are in Christ, we don't sin."
Note verse 3:3, which implies that we're not yet pure.
I'm sorry, but you don't understand what the NT teaches us about the Trinity.The Trinity is eternal, so God was always Father and Son. That means that in eternity, God experiences the love between father and son. (You can't completely describe God in human terms, so this is probably somewhat metaphorical.) Why is Christ said to be the incarnation of the Son specifically, and not God as a whole or the Father? Because Christ shows us the obedience love of the Son. But the point I'm trying to make is that the relationship between Jesus and the Father is the visible form of the relationship in eternity between the Father and the eternal Son. So Jesus' father is the Father, just like the eternal Son's father is the Father.
So why doesn't the Father come to Mary? As I noted, all actions of God involve all three persons. But generally the Bible speaks of the Holy Spirit when it's speaking of God's presence with us, e.g. inspiring the prophets. So it makes sense to speak of the Holy Spirit as appearing to Mary.
The Holy Spirit is the connection between man and God.Okay, so we agree fully on the above.
Now, would you care to take a stab at ...
The Word became Jesus, but the Holy Spirit made Mary conceive!
Aaaaah ... perhaps ...
the Word made Jesus "fully God",
whilst
the Holy Spirit made Jesus "fully man".
No one has suggested this in the other recent Trinity thread.
He is fully man because that is the only way that we can see YHWH.I have to agree with Gracia that Jesus took his "fully man" from Mary.
While you focus on your #1 priority of Faithfully Following Jesus and His Gospel,
some of you might like to Delve Deeper into the Triune Godhead (the Trinity).
I am wondering … Does my understanding of the Trinity line up with yours?
Before the Incarnation
1 ● Father God --- John 1:1
2 ● The Word --- John 1:1
3 ● The Holy Spirit --- John 14:16 (“another”/Greek “allos”: another of the same kind, i.e. God)
The Incarnation
Gabriel said to Mary:
Luke 1:31 “… you will conceive in your womb and bring forth a Son,
and you shall call His name Jesus.”
Luke 1:32 “He will be great, and will be called the Son of the Highest”
Luke 1:35 “The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Highest
will overshadow you; therefore, also, that Holy One who is to be born
will be called the Son of God.”
Gabriel said to Joseph:
Matthew 1:20 “… that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Spirit.”
Matthew 1:21 “And she will bring forth a Son, and you shall call His name Jesus”
Also:
Matthew 1:23 “His name will be “Immanuel (God with us)” (from Isaiah 7:14)
John 1:14 “And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us”
Jesus was “the only begotten (the one and only) Son of God” (John 1:18, 3:16, 3:18)
Notes:
● The Word is definitely not the Holy Spirit.
● Jesus was called “the Son of God” because God the Holy Spirit played the role of His “father”.
● A British lady doctor told me that a baby has the DNA of both parents.
After the Incarnation
1 ● Father God --- John 1:1
2 ● Jesus (the Word) on earth: the Son of God, Immanuel (God with us), the Messiah, etc.
3 ● The Holy Spirit --- John 14:16
About 20 NT verses include all 3 “Persons” of the Trinity (in each verse).
Perhaps the shortest Trinity verse: “And I (Jesus) will pray to the Father,
and He will give you another Helper (the Holy Spirit)” (John 14:16)
The hierarchy of the Trinity now
1 ● Father God is like the CEO, the Administrator, etc.
2 ● Jesus is subordinate to the Father because He calls Him “My Son”.
3 ● The Holy Spirit is subordinate to the Father because He calls Him “My Spirit”.
My questions from all of the above
● Where does “the Word became flesh” fit in with the Holy Spirit causing Mary to conceive?
A possible explanation … In John 14:23, Jesus says “We” will come to be with the believer.
IMO, this is another example of, “When/where you have One, you have all Three.”
● Did the Holy Spirit cause Mary to conceive by placing a fetus in Her womb?
(If this is the case, then wasn’t this fetus a created being?)
● Was Mary’s DNA involved when the Holy Spirit miraculously caused Mary to conceive?
● Who’s in heaven now? … the Father, Jesus (the Word)? …or… the Father, the Word, Jesus?
● Who’s the Trinity now? … the Father, Jesus (the Word), the Holy Spirit?
(Staff Edit)Still wrong.
I always go with Young's Literal Translation when in doubt.
YLT every one who hath been begotten of God, sin he doth not,
because his seed in him doth remain, and he is not able to sin, because of God he hath been begotten.
(Staff Edit)
Sorry everyone for messing up the NKJV.
But, the most literal translation (NASB) says "practices" sin.
And the Amplified goes into great detail about practicing sin, habitual sin, etc.
I thought you were going toward if Jesus was at creation, which he was, and has been there, and here throughout.While you focus on your #1 priority of Faithfully Following Jesus and His Gospel,
some of you might like to Delve Deeper into the Triune Godhead (the Trinity).
I am wondering … Does my understanding of the Trinity line up with yours?
Before the Incarnation
1 ● Father God --- John 1:1
2 ● The Word --- John 1:1
3 ● The Holy Spirit --- John 14:16 (“another”/Greek “allos”: another of the same kind, i.e. God)
The Incarnation
Gabriel said to Mary:
Luke 1:31 “… you will conceive in your womb and bring forth a Son,
and you shall call His name Jesus.”
Luke 1:32 “He will be great, and will be called the Son of the Highest”
Luke 1:35 “The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Highest
will overshadow you; therefore, also, that Holy One who is to be born
will be called the Son of God.”
Gabriel said to Joseph:
Matthew 1:20 “… that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Spirit.”
Matthew 1:21 “And she will bring forth a Son, and you shall call His name Jesus”
Also:
Matthew 1:23 “His name will be “Immanuel (God with us)” (from Isaiah 7:14)
John 1:14 “And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us”
Jesus was “the only begotten (the one and only) Son of God” (John 1:18, 3:16, 3:18)
Notes:
● The Word is definitely not the Holy Spirit.
● Jesus was called “the Son of God” because God the Holy Spirit played the role of His “father”.
● A British lady doctor told me that a baby has the DNA of both parents.
After the Incarnation
1 ● Father God --- John 1:1
2 ● Jesus (the Word) on earth: the Son of God, Immanuel (God with us), the Messiah, etc.
3 ● The Holy Spirit --- John 14:16
About 20 NT verses include all 3 “Persons” of the Trinity (in each verse).
Perhaps the shortest Trinity verse: “And I (Jesus) will pray to the Father,
and He will give you another Helper (the Holy Spirit)” (John 14:16)
The hierarchy of the Trinity now
1 ● Father God is like the CEO, the Administrator, etc.
2 ● Jesus is subordinate to the Father because He calls Him “My Son”.
3 ● The Holy Spirit is subordinate to the Father because He calls Him “My Spirit”.
My questions from all of the above
● Where does “the Word became flesh” fit in with the Holy Spirit causing Mary to conceive?
A possible explanation … In John 14:23, Jesus says “We” will come to be with the believer.
IMO, this is another example of, “When/where you have One, you have all Three.”
● Did the Holy Spirit cause Mary to conceive by placing a fetus in Her womb?
(If this is the case, then wasn’t this fetus a created being?)
● Was Mary’s DNA involved when the Holy Spirit miraculously caused Mary to conceive?
● Who’s in heaven now? … the Father, Jesus (the Word)? …or… the Father, the Word, Jesus?
● Who’s the Trinity now? … the Father, Jesus (the Word), the Holy Spirit?
The Word of God, incarnate in the human nature of JC, is "fully God" by nature or essence...Yep! The Word became flesh. Yet the deity of Christ was not eclipsed or swallowed up by His humanity. He remained fully God, while being fully man.
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