God created Adam and Eve's DNA. Creating the other part of Jesus' DNA should have been no problem for Him.Okay, Joseph wasn't allowed to play the role of Jesus' father!
Because of his DNA?
But, Mary was allowed to pass her DNA along?
So, Jesus received only 1/2 of the normal DNA passed along from parents?
So then, how was He fully human?
Yes, and perhaps the Holy Spirit provided God's DNA when Mary conceived.God created Adam and Eve's DNA.
Creating the other part of Jesus' DNA should have been no problem for Him.
"Carne" = meat (as in carne asada in Spanish).I don't even know what "incarnate" means.
The forum doesn't allow us to talk about it in depth.Does my understanding of the Trinity line up with yours?
Nope, sorry!
1 John 3:9 is talking about continuing to sin (see the Greek), as in habitual sinning!
Jesus did not sin at all ... never ever did He sin!
IMO ... being fully God, Jesus could resist all sin and be sinless!
Yes, this has some substance, doesn't it. Thank you, sister.Mary conceived in her womb.
Conception means something specific.
Mary's body supplied the humanity of Christ.
The Word became united to flesh through Mary,
by the grace and work of the Holy Spirit.
And the Word became Man.
Hence, Christ Jesus.
"flesh" in this case is a poetic way of saying human. In traditional theology, all three Persons (Father, Son and Holy Spirit) are involved in every act of God. The Bible speaks of the Spirit in this case, but it was all three.My questions from all of the above
● Where does “the Word became flesh” fit in with the Holy Spirit causing Mary to conceive?
A possible explanation … In John 14:23, Jesus says “We” will come to be with the believer.
IMO, this is another example of, “When/where you have One, you have all Three.”
There have been lots of discussions in CF about this, and in my opinion no real resolution. The Bible doesn't talk about DNA. God could certainly have created someone completely new and put it in Mary's womb. But the Bible talks about Jesus' genealogy. I think it means that Jesus is physically descended from David (though you could also say that it's legal descent that matters). So I think at least Mary's egg with its DNA was used. Either God created half the DNA himself, or he used Joseph's DNA. I think it's most likely that he used Joseph's, but almost no one else agrees. At any rate, the Bible doesn't talk about any of this, so it's really a guess. (Or the whole thing isn't meant literally, but CF is committed to a literal virgin birth.)● Did the Holy Spirit cause Mary to conceive by placing a fetus in Her womb?
(If this is the case, then wasn’t this fetus a created being?)
● Was Mary’s DNA involved when the Holy Spirit miraculously caused Mary to conceive?
I think God is in heaven in a different sense from the human in heaven. God is a spiritual being. Jesus was resurrected, and ascended, and Paul tells us that he has a resurrection body. So in my opinion, the Son is now in two forms: the eternal divine nature, and resurrected human. Both forms (natures) are one Person. I'm not sure they're "in heaven" in quite the same sense. I don't think God has a body, not even Paul's resurrection body. But the resurrected Son does. I just don't think we should imagine the Word and Jesus as standing side by side.● Who’s in heaven now? … the Father, Jesus (the Word)? …or… the Father, the Word, Jesus?
The Trinity can't change. God doesn't change. The Trinity is Father, Son and Holy Spirit, as always. But the Son now has two natures, so in addition to the form he always had, he has the resurrected human form.● Who’s the Trinity now? … the Father, Jesus (the Word), the Holy Spirit?
NKJV, NASB, AMP, etc. say "practices" sin.You are wrong, sorry. 1 John 3:9 is "commit" sin. That is even once. As in I could not commit murder even once. I'm surprised at you. It is other denominations who say what you did and say "practice" sin, the same connotation that you used.
Many thanks for your input.In traditional theology, all three Persons (Father, Son and Holy Spirit) are involved in every act of God. The Bible speaks of the Spirit in this case, but it was all three.
... I think at least Mary's egg with its DNA was used. Either God created half the DNA himself,
or he used Joseph's DNA.
... The Trinity can't change. God doesn't change. The Trinity is Father, Son and Holy Spirit, as always.
But the Son now has two natures, so in addition to the form he always had, he has the resurrected human form.
Essentially. The Messiah has always existed as the Eternal Word and Eternal Son of God, begotten of the Father, from eternity. Yet He did not always have flesh / was not always Man. This came about at and through the incarnation. Yet while a Man, He was still fully God.Yes, this has some substance, doesn't it. Thank you, sister.
I could never figure out: the Word + the Holy Spirit + Mary = Jesus
Yes, He surely always existed as the Word.Essentially. The Messiah has always existed as the Eternal Word and Eternal Son of God, begotten of the Father, from eternity. Yet He did not always have flesh / was not always Man. This came about at and through the incarnation. Yet while a Man, He was still fully God.
Would you like your flak with mustard and relish, or some other heathen way?I may get a lot of flak over this, but IMHO, any study of the Trinity in depth
must account for the Seven Spirits of God as mentioned in the Revelation.
NKJV, NASB, AMP, etc. say "practices" sin.
My best NT commentary (charismatic) says the Greek has "continues to sin".
No, friend, it doesn't mean created. It means both unique, and uniquely brought forth, of one being with the Father.Yes, He surely always existed as the Word.
But, as the eternal Son of God?
But, as the Messiah?
Do you agree that "only begotten" means "one and only"?
Many non-BACs think it means "created".
Aaaah, sister ...The Son bears witness that He has existed in relation to the Father, before creation. John 17:5
And Messiah means "annointed".
Surely from the beginning, the Word who would someday become flesh was this.
And yet, Scripture references the Son prior to the incarnation, too.Aaaah, sister ...
The titles/names "Jesus" and "Son of God" (given by Gabriel) began at the Incarnation.
John 17:5 is Jesus praying to the Father (nothing about the Son of God).
Many people today have been called and anointed by God.
IMO, Messiah means Christ, and vice versa.
I think they're wrong. I have two commentaries, neither of which takes this approach.NKJV, NASB, AMP, etc. say "practices" sin.
My best NT commentary (charismatic) says the Greek has "continues to sin".
I'll check it, but IMO any OT reference is in a future sense.And yet, Scripture references the Son prior to the incarnation, too.
Proverbs 30:4
At least, this is how I read it.
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