This has been discussed before, but it came up again in the "Presumed oldest known church in Israel found" thread, and I thought it might be helpful to talk about it. Sometimes an argument raised in favour of the Septuagint Greek translation is that it's the version quoted in the New Testament.
But that in itself doesn't prove anything. The apostles were all Jews, and therefore must have learned the Hebrew Scriptures from their youth. Yet they were riting to a mixed audience, and so used the common, non-synagogue translation.
It seems to me that an analogous situation would be a preacher preparing his sermon from the Greek and Hebrew, but then quoting an English translation - you can't assume from this that the English translation is "the bible the preacher uses".
And there is sufficient evidence to prove that the NT writers were familiar with the Hebrew Bible. One example that occurred to me the other day was the relationship between Genesis 3:8 and Revelation 1:10. Both use the words "Spirit" "Lord", "voice" and "day". But the Septuagint doesn't have the word "Spirit", which makes me think that John had in mind the Hebrew text.
Admittedly, that's probably one of the weaker examples. But maybe someone else knows of another one.
But that in itself doesn't prove anything. The apostles were all Jews, and therefore must have learned the Hebrew Scriptures from their youth. Yet they were riting to a mixed audience, and so used the common, non-synagogue translation.
It seems to me that an analogous situation would be a preacher preparing his sermon from the Greek and Hebrew, but then quoting an English translation - you can't assume from this that the English translation is "the bible the preacher uses".
And there is sufficient evidence to prove that the NT writers were familiar with the Hebrew Bible. One example that occurred to me the other day was the relationship between Genesis 3:8 and Revelation 1:10. Both use the words "Spirit" "Lord", "voice" and "day". But the Septuagint doesn't have the word "Spirit", which makes me think that John had in mind the Hebrew text.
Admittedly, that's probably one of the weaker examples. But maybe someone else knows of another one.