If an omniscient being creates other beings with "free will" in the knowledge that they will abuse their free will by falling into sin (for wouldn't denying this knowledge be a contradiction of God's omniscience), is that not the same as creating sin? It would be like shipping a product that is known to be defective.
This seems to create a situation of two-tiered responsibility; on the one level, man made a "choice" to sin; yet on the other, God created man in the knowledge that he would sin. If you adhere to the "God did not create sin" view, how do you absolve God of this blame? Is there Scriptural evidence to refute the claim that God created sin?
And if you argue that sin has always existed because it is the necessary opposite of God - the absence of obedience - would it not limit both God's omnipotence and omnipresence to suggest that something exists outside of God, eternally, that was not created by him? How could this not put sin on an equal footing?
The options would appear to be to believe:
1) that goodness and sin are necessary opposites - that the existance of one can only be defined by the presence of the other
2) that perfect goodness spawned perfect evil
In my mind, the first option contradicts Scripture and also seems to suggest that there is some greater fundamental principle of reality that eclipses God. The second option contradicts logic.
As regards this passage...
Romans 5:12-13 said:
12Therefore, just as sin entered the world through one man, and death through sin, and in this way death came to all men, because all sinned— 13for before the law was given, sin was in the world. But sin is not taken into account when there is no law.
Sin entered the world through one man... sin already existed but did not enter the world until Adam and Eve fell to Satan's temptation. So I cannot believe this passage can tell us anything about the origin of sin, except in this world alone; yet that is already outlined in Genesis.