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Andrewn

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Lucian of Antioch - Wikipedia. I agree there's not that much difference in the Bible versions except paraphrases like the NLT and The Message. I like to have footnotes that tell me when something has been excluded and why.
I like the example you gave in message #2. St Paul was clearly talking about a father, not a fiancé.
 
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Insureman23

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So, what is the original reading in Romans 8:1 that we can be certain of?
 
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Insureman23

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BPPLEE

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BPPLEE

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ByTheSpirit

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Dittos. Here is another one...
Scholars Weather Report - Romans 8:1 (kjvdebate.com)
Blessings.....
A lot of these arguments really don't do a whole lot to change scripture. Take this verse, Romans 8:1... is it the longer version or the shorter? Ultimately it only matters from the end of preserving the Word of God. For if you take away the last bit, the phrase still exists in Romans 8:4.

Romans 8:1 KJV There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.

Romans 8:4 KJV That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.

Even in the case of other more disputed passages, if you remove them for lack of support or whatever, you're really not taking away from anything the rest of scripture teaches. Say the ending of Mark. It ultimately says those who believe will be saved and signs will follow them. That's basically all of the book of Acts in a nutshell, so again it doesn't remove anything.

It's an interesting topic to explore, but one that we should ultimately not allow to divide us. I don't think
 
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BPPLEE

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Someone said they could take the Jehovah's Witnesses' New World Translation and still show the plan of salvation. I think God has ensured that his word has been preserved. I just don't agree with all the decisions scholars made. Like John 5:4
Jhn 5:1


After this there was a feast of the Jews; and Jesus went up to Jerusalem.
Jhn 5:2

Now there is at Jerusalem by the sheep market a pool, which is called in the Hebrew tongue Bethesda, having five porches.
Jhn 5:3

In these lay a great multitude of impotent folk, of blind, halt, withered, waiting for the moving of the water.
Jhn 5:4

For an angel went down at a certain season into the pool, and troubled the water: whosoever then first after the troubling of the water stepped in was made whole of whatsoever disease he had.

Jhn 5:5

And a certain man was there, which had an infirmity thirty and eight years.
Jhn 5:6

When Jesus saw him lie, and knew that he had been now a long time in that case, he saith unto him, Wilt thou be made whole?
Jhn 5:7


The impotent man answered him, Sir, I have no man, when the water is troubled, to put me into the pool: but while I am coming, another steppeth down before me.
Jhn 5:8


Jesus saith unto him, Rise, take up thy bed, and walk.
Jhn 5:9

And immediately the man was made whole, and took up his bed, and walked: and on the same day was the sabbath.

Modern versions omit part of verse 3 and all of verse 4. If you omit that verse 7 makes no sense. "The impotent man answered him, Sir, I have no man, when the water is troubled, to put me into the pool: but while I am coming, another steppeth down before me."
What troubled the water? Why was he trying to get in the pool? This is just one of the places I disagree with the exclusion of these verses.
 
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Insureman23

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'For if you take away the last bit, the phrase still exists in Romans 8:4.'

How is that not like telling a wounded veteran with one arm that he still has one arm left and his situation has not changed a 'bit'?

'Say the ending of Mark. It ultimately says those who believe will be saved and signs will follow them. That's basically all of the book of Acts in a nutshell, so again it doesn't remove anything.'

There is a lot more to the ending of Mark than just those who believe will be saved and signs will follow them. The resurrection and ascension of Christ and Christ sitting on the right hand of God is in Mark's ending.
 
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ByTheSpirit

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There is a lot more to the ending of Mark than just those who believe will be saved and signs will follow them. The resurrection and ascension of Christ and Christ sitting on the right hand of God is in Mark's ending.

Your strawman argument aside, thank you for proving my point.

"The resurrection and ascension of Christ and Christ sitting on the right hand of God is in Mark's ending."

Those teachings and thoughts are not exclusive to the ending of Mark, if you remove that section because it lacks textual support (and it does), the ascension of Christ and His sitting on the right hand of God would still be valid scriptural teachings because a host of other scriptures support them.
 
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BPPLEE

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I have found the NASB95 to be a very good translation especially John 1:18 in that version and I have ordered the NET Bible because of the detailed notes. I will post more about the NET after I study it
 
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Andrewn

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I have found the NASB95 to be a very good translation especially John 1:18 in that version and I have ordered the NET Bible because of the detailed notes. I will post more about the NET after I study it
NASB95: No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him.

NASB20: No one has seen God at any time; God the only Son, who is in the arms of the Father, He has explained Him.

NET: No one has ever seen God. The only one, himself God, who is in closest fellowship with the Father, has made God known.

MEV: No one has seen God at any time. The only Son, who is at the Father’s side, has made Him known.

NRSVUE: No one has ever seen God. It is the only Son, himself God, who is close to the Father’s heart, who has made him known.

CSB: No one has ever seen God. The one and only Son, who is himself God and is at the Father’s side—he has revealed him.


MEV follows the Textus Receptus. Other translations follow the Alexandrian Text or the Critical Text.
 
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BPPLEE

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Thanks
 
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Andrewn

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MEV follows the Textus Receptus. Other translations follow the Alexandrian Text or the Critical Text.
I read through this very informative analysis regarding textual variants of Joh 1:18:

The Text of the Gospels: John 1:18 - Some Patristic Evidence

Frankly, the reading "the only begotten God" does not feel right to me. It seems Arian. The straight-forward reading of the Textus Receptus and the Majority text just feels right:

NKJV: No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has declared Him.

WEB: No one has seen God at any time. The one and only Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, has declared him.

MEV: No one has seen God at any time. The only Son, who is at the Father’s side, has made Him known.
 
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BPPLEE

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Interesting article. This verse came up in discussions with Unitarians. Here is another one they don't like and there is some variance with it too
Act 20:28

Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over the which the Holy Ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood. And 2 Peter 1:1
 
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The Liturgist

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While I agree that the Alexandrian text type is overrated (and conversely, the Western text type and the Peshitta are underrated), your polemic against it does contain some errors. So while I agree with much of what you have to say, these factual errors are a real problem for me.

Both men were strongly influenced by Origen and others who denied the deity of Jesus Christ and embraced the prevalent Gnostic heresies of the period.

Origen did not deny the deity of our Lord, nor was he a Gnostic. Indeed, he actively opposed Gnostics. His writings predate the Council of Nicaea by several decades and do not reflect a fully developed Christology.

Lucian of Antioch on the other hand was believed by St. Epiphanius, the leading heresiologist of the 4th century, and many subsequent theologians, of being the tutor of Arius, who started the Arian heresy that actually did deny the deity of our Lord, and that Lucian may have been a disciple of Paul of Samosata, a 3rd century bishop deposed for corruption after he used the church treasury to build himself a lavish mansion, who taught what amounted to Unitarianism.

They note that Alexandria was a major headquarters for the Gnostics, heretical sects that had begun to emerge even while John was still alive.

It was also the headquarters for the Church of Alexandria, home to the largest number of martyrs during the Diocletian persecution, and also St. Athanasius, who prosecuted Arius at the Council of Nicaea and was later exiled for decades to Trier in Germany after the sinister Arian bishop Eusebius of Nicomedia got to Emperor Constantine’s heir Constantius, who reversed the Council of Nicaea and made Arianism the state religion of the Roman Empire, and began persecuting Christians. This would continue into the 380s, although the worst of it ended during the reign of Emperor Valens, and it mostly stopped after St. Theodosius, the first Christian Emperor since St. Constantine, took the purple around 380 AD.

Also, it is highly likely the Alexandrian text type manuscripts were produced somewhere else, such as Caesarea, since only one of them has a geographical connection with Alexandria, and the Coptic Orthodox Church of Alexandria has always used manuscripts based on the Byzantine text type. Indeed the oldest Sahidic Coptic manuscripts follow the Byzantine text type.

Furthermore, the Monastery of St. Catharine of Sinai, from which the Codex Sinaiticus was stolen by Tischendorf, who literally conned the monks out of it by asking their permission to borrow it, and then selling it at high prices to both the Russians and the British, making a huge profit, is not part of, and was never part of, either the Greek Orthodox Church of Alexandria or the Coptic Orthodox Church of Alexandria. Rather, it is the headquarters of the tiny Church of Sinai, an autonomous part of the Greek Orthodox Church of Jerusalem.
 
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The Liturgist

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That argument is deeply flawed. While there is a possibility, which I have contemplated and even spoken about, that the Alexandrian text type was influenced by Arianism, it is clearly not influenced by Gnosticism. The Gnostics composed their own fake or corrupted gospels and other scriptures, for example, the Gospel of Truth, the Gospel of Mary, the Gospel of Philip, the Tripartite Tractate, the Pistis Sophia, the Acts of Thomas, and other works. In the 4th century, the predominant Gnostic sect was the Manichaean religion founded by a Persian painter named Mani, who declared himself an Apostle of Jesus Christ to the Christians, and of Hermes to the Pagans, and of Buddha to the Buddhists, and produced illustrated religious literature and a Gospel of Mani, which is lost, although much information about Manichaean dogma remains, and there is also a Manichaean church in China disguised as a Buddhist temple, although it has not been used as such for many years. The last surviving Christian Gnostics were the Paulicans of Armenia, who converted to Orthodoxy in the 19th century, and the last surviving Gnostics are the Mandaeans and possibly the Druze. There are of course neo-Gnostic Christians like the Ecclesia Gnostica.

Some Gnostics probably used canonical New Testament scriptures, perhaps in corrupted form (the Gospel of Thomas consists of sayings, most of which are in the Synoptics but some of which are clear Gnostic interpolations), but the thing to remember about Gnosticism is that it is the opposite of Arianism or Unitarianism, in that Gnostics are Docetic, believing matter to be evil and regarding Jesus Christ as entirely divine and in no respect human.
 
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The Liturgist

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If you could go into specifics I would appreciate it.
 
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BPPLEE

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I have learned more about Origen and the material I had read about him is not true. It said he was responsible for the word was a god translation of John 1 and this is not true. I need to amend my post. And I didn't know the information about Lucian. Thanks for the correction. I removed that reference to Origen
 
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