- Jun 13, 2006
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If sabbath was instituted at creation for all of mankind, why was it given 2500yrs later as a sign to seperate one nation called Israel from all other nations of the world, if sabbath was ever instituted at creation?
It is evident today and scriptually, that marriage was instituted at creation.
Did God's original plan for the sabbath fail or are commentaries wrong and the scriptures accurate?
Exd 31:17It [is] a sign between me and the children of Israel for ever: for [in] six days the LORD made heaven and earth, and on the seventh day he rested, and was refreshed.
Why did not God hint that it was for all of mankind?
The scriptures say clearly...... it was commanded for one nation to keep.
Eze 20:12Moreover also I gave them my sabbaths, to be a sign between me and them, that they might know that I [am] the LORD that sanctify them.
Eze 20:20And hallow my sabbaths; and they shall be a sign between me and you, that ye may know that I [am] the LORD your God.
Why cant we say what God sayeth about the sabbath rather than what commentary declares?
It is evident today and scriptually, that marriage was instituted at creation.
Did God's original plan for the sabbath fail or are commentaries wrong and the scriptures accurate?

Why did not God hint that it was for all of mankind?
The scriptures say clearly...... it was commanded for one nation to keep.

Eze 20:20And hallow my sabbaths; and they shall be a sign between me and you, that ye may know that I [am] the LORD your God.
Why cant we say what God sayeth about the sabbath rather than what commentary declares?