Hi Peter, it is easy to say God should have done this or that because it makes more sense. At its core, it reflects the idea of judging God by our standards. It begs the question, could something that seems foolish to us actually be divine truth? What if our measuring stick is bent.
What does it mean when Paul says all scripture is "inspired" or "God breathed?" One, it means the thoughts expressed are from God and are not the invention of the person being inspired. But how the thought is expressed, what language and word choices used come from the person being inspired. So Paul does not express himself the same way John does, and even when they use the same Greek word, sometimes they are not talking about the same concept.
Besides Hebrew and Greek, there are some Aramaic words in the New Testament and whole passages in Aramaic in the Old Testament.
Here is a quote from one internet source I found:
"Passages of the Old Testament written in the Aramaic language are called Biblical Aramaic. They occur in Ezra 4:8; 6:18 and 7:12-26. Daniel 2:4,7:28; and the gloss in Jer. 10:11 and Gen 31:47.
Various scholars have tried to show that the original language of a number of books from the Persian and Hellenistic periods, were written in Aramaic, and that they were later translated into Hebrew. This view has been presented in connection with Job, Koheleth, Daniel, Esther, 1 and 2 Chronicles, proverbs, and Ezekiel11
In the New Testament, various Aramaic words or expressions occur, e.g. "Talitha Cumi" (little girl, stand up) Mark 5:41; "Ephphata" (etphtah, be opened) Mark 7:34; "Eli, Eli, Lama Shabachthani" (my God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me) Matt.27:46, Mark 15:34; "Rabboni" (my Lord) Mark 10:51, John 20:16; "Maran Atha" (our Lord, come) Cor. 16:22.
Aramaic influence is apparent in personal names such as " Cephas" John 1:42, 1 Cor 1:12 and "Tabitha" Acts 9:36, 40, and in place names, including "Akeldama" (field of blood) Acts 1:19; "Gesthsemane (oil press) Matt 26:36, Mark 14:32; and "Golgotha" (skull) Mark 15:22"