Do you have a biblical lexicon to support " all with or without distinction" ????
Once again that is your assumption not from the bible or the lexicons.
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Do you have a biblical lexicon to support " all with or without distinction" ????I don't want to engage in a harangue. Suffice it to say that
#2609 fails to take into account that both the words "all" and "world" can mean either
all without distinction, or
all without exception,
which when applied correctly does not cause Scripture to contradict itself.
You assume "all without exception" where the whole counsel of God shows it to be "all without distinction."
I will not be arguing those differences with you.
I claim neither, and don't need to prove either.Jehovah's Witnesses claim a similar thing about the Trinty, that the counsel of Nicaea AD 325 changed the reference point of who God is.
Can you show that the Early Church Fathers didn't hold the same position on free will as Pelagius?
That comes from Scripture itself, in light of the whole counsel of God.Do you have a biblical lexicon to support " all with or without distinction" ????
Once again that is your assumption not from the bible or the lexicons.
Where please point me to this assumption of yours in the Bible so we can see if your cistern holds water or is full of holes.That comes from the whole counsel of God.
I affirm man's ability to voluntarily choose what he prefers, likes, which is shown throughout Scripture.Do you affirm or deny mans free will ?
Because they are effects, not "first causes". They do not occur without being caused to occur. And the Arminian argument is that they are caused by the person choosing, alone, "in some way" spontaneous. They cannot say how they are spontaneous, only that they are. Their only recourse is to claim that each person is capable "somehow" of one choosing better than another is capable of doing, which implies that one person is morally better, or better in some other way (which they don't want to claim), or that chance determines the difference. But, if they do say one is a better person than another, they still cannot account for THAT difference, but by causation.How do you figure?
Therefore you can't be judged for it."Choice," in the sense of "free will," means the power/ability to execute the choice.
If you don't have the power to "do" it, then you can't really "choose" it.
I claim neither, and don't need to prove either.
Do you have any evidence that God was hands off concerning Pharoah when Pharoah hardened his own heart? Wasn't it God who set things in motion knowing Adam would sin, and all people subsequent to that sin would be plunged into a life (but for the grace of God) of enmity against God? By that, if by no other way, God had something to do with the fact that Pharoah's heart went the way it did, even before you noticed it going that way. Did God have nothing to do with the fact that Pharoah was raised as a child the way he was? Did God have nothing to do with Pharoah's environment? He certainly had something to do with what Satan did with Job, no?Maybe you are ok with that rationalization but I believe you are taking your verses out of context i.e. Pharoah who hardened his heart on his own several times before God began directing his motives.
I believe we've already discussed this.
That makes Jesus a liarI believe, per the Scriptures, that will be the outcome at the end of time.
I believe, per the Scriptures, that he chose some in Christ before the foundation of the world.
If he didn't choose all. . .you do the math.
No one is arguing for the above. This is just another strawman, a caricature.I deny the "free will" of philosophy whereby man can make all moral choices because
man cannot make the moral choice to be sinless in thought, word and deed.
.
"We find nowhere within the primary or indirect sources related to ancient Gnosticism a systematic inquiry about human free will"The only ones who taught against free will were the gnostics.
If you also believe in hell, then after putting 1 + 1 together, you are saying that God wanted to demonstrate how just He is by creating beings He will torture for ever.
This is the area where the theology of calvinism (or perhaps just common calvinists) fails miserably to give good answers.
Therefore you can't be judged for it.
The OT saints and the NT saints are one and the same people of God, all saved by Grace. I have no problem with that.Is Hebrews 12:22-24 not describing the church, the one people of God, including the spirits of the OT saints?
Spot on !The OT saints and the NT saints are one and the same people of God, all saved by Grace. I have no problem with that.
My problem is with the notion that angels are part of the body of Christ, the Bride, THE dwelling place of God. God did not make the angels in his image, as far as I know. What he put us through these several thousand years is what it took for him to make a people like himself. The angels are not the ones Christ died for.
all without distinction - Romans 10:12 (Gentile as well as Jew)Where please point me to this assumption of yours in the Bible so we can see if your cistern holds water or is full of holes.
Here's another example of what I'm talking about,
Genesis 15:16
But in the fourth generation they shall come hither again: for the iniquity of the Amorites is not
yet full.
The Amorites had to reach a certain level of wickedness and seal their fate before God would intervene and have them destroyed. And this is just a kingdom of heathens and not particularly nice ones.
This is a good example of how God works.
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