WHAT IS THE MENING OF MATT 26:26 AND 27 ?In Matt 26:

[Dan Perez]

In Matthew 26:26 Jesus sat down with the 12 disciples and in verse 26 gave them the bread , and He gave to them and said , Take and eat ,

this is my body !!

In verse 27 he took the cup and gave to them , saying , DRINK ye all of IT !!

In verse 26 , Jesus does not says eat ye all of the BREAD ?? Why not ??

And in verse 27 Jesus says of the cup , DRINK YE ALL OF IT ??

Your thoughts as to why the difference of verse 26 and 27 , between the BODY and His BLOOD ??

dan p , H 137

 

[Aristarkos]

In verse 27 he took the cup and gave to them , saying , DRINK ye all of IT !!

I don't think that's what is says. It says cup (potērion, Accusative Neuter Singular) so one cup that He gave to them and told them to drink of it, all of them. So the cup had to go around.

Aristarkos

 

[David Lamb]

In Matthew 26:26 Jesus sat down with the 12 disciples and in verse 26 gave them the bread , and He gave to them and said , Take and eat ,

this is my body !!

In verse 27 he took the cup and gave to them , saying , DRINK ye all of IT !!

In verse 26 , Jesus does not says eat ye all of the BREAD ?? Why not ??

And in verse 27 Jesus says of the cup , DRINK YE ALL OF IT ??

Your thoughts as to why the difference of verse 26 and 27 , between the BODY and His BLOOD ??

dan p , H 137

The New King James Version shows more clearly what v27 means:

“Then He took the cup, and gave thanks, and gave it to them, saying, "Drink from it, all of you.” (Mt 26:27 NKJV)

Unsure how this is connected with Dispensationalism though.

 

[Dan Perez]

The New King James Version shows more clearly what v27 means:

“Then He took the cup, and gave thanks, and gave it to them, saying, "Drink from it, all of you.” (Mt 26:27 NKJV)

Unsure how this is connected with Dispensationalism though.

For one Matt 26:27 is speaking to Israel and also notice it was given to them by Jesus Himself !!

Also notice that b Matt 26:29 will NOT // ME , which means Jesus will NEVRRRRRRR ever , until that day wen I drink

it NEW with you MEANS the 12 disciples in my Fathers Kingdom ,

The Body of Christ should ONLY follow what is written in 1 Cor 11: 23 Lords supper was given to ONLY to Paul ,

what I DELIVERED to you , should be DISPENSAIONAL for all .

So what does the BREAD and BLOOD a type of and it a type , right ??

dan p

 

[David Lamb]

For one Matt 26:27 is speaking to Israel and also notice it was given to them by Jesus Himself !!

I don't know where you see in that verse Jesus speaking to Israel. He's speaking to His disciples, who were Israelites, but they were not Israel. That's like saying that the people who live in the same road as me are all British, then calling those residents "Britain".

Also notice that b Matt 26:29 will NOT // ME , which means Jesus will NEVRRRRRRR ever , until that day wen I drink

it NEW with you MEANS the 12 disciples in my Fathers Kingdom ,

The Body of Christ should ONLY follow what is written in 1 Cor 11: 23 Lords supper was given to ONLY to Paul ,

The Lord's Supper was given only to Paul? I don't get that.

what I DELIVERED to you , should be DISPENSAIONAL for all .

I don't know what DISPENSAIONAL means. Dispensational perhaps? But what does it mean in relation to Paul's words?

So what does the BEAD and BLOOD a type of and it a type , right ??

dan p

You need to translate "So what does the BEAD and BLOOD a type of and it a type , right ??" into other words. What you have written doesn't make sense. Perhaps you meant, "So what does the bread and wine mean? They are types, right?" (Let me assure you that I am not fault-finding; it's just that I don't understand what you have written.)

 

[Dan Perez]

I don't know where you see in that verse Jesus speaking to Israel. He's speaking to His disciples, who were Israelites, but they were not Israel. That's like saying that the people who live in the same road as me are all British, then calling those residents "Britain".

The Lord's Supper was given only to Paul? I don't get that.

I don't know what DISPENSAIONAL means. Dispensational perhaps? But what does it mean in relation to Paul's words?

You need to translate "So what does the BEAD and BLOOD a type of and it a type , right ??" into other words. What you have written doesn't make sense. Perhaps you meant, "So what does the bread and wine mean? They are types, right?" (Let me assure you that I am not fault-finding; it's just that I don't understand what you have written.)

AND spelled it BEAD where I meant BREAD !!

And there are many FIGURES of Speech in the Bible !!

Here are just some of them !!

# 1 ELLIPSIS

# 2 PARABLES

# 3 Figures of speech

# 4 PARALLELISM

# 5 OXYMORON , just check these verse , Job 22:6 ---Isa 58:10 ---Jer 22:19 ---Matt 6:23 ---1 Tim 5:6

Here b is what BREAD means , that Christ is the BREAD of Live , which I believe rejected Christ and Israel was set aside

in Acts 28:25- 28 !!

And the BLOOD of the SON of God was TRAMPLED underfoot and counted THE BLOOD a COMMON THING .

I have 3 books with thousand figures of speech , written by E W BULLINGER .

dan p

 

[David Lamb]

AND spelled it BEAD where I meant BREAD !!

And there are many FIGURES of Speech in the Bible !!

Here are just some of them !!

# 1 ELLIPSIS

# 2 PARABLES

# 3 Figures of speech

# 4 PARALLELISM

# 5 OXYMORON , just check these verse , Job 22:6 ---Isa 58:10 ---Jer 22:19 ---Matt 6:23 ---1 Tim 5:6

Here b is what BREAD means , that Christ is the BREAD of Live , which I believe rejected Christ and Israel was set aside

in Acts 28:25- 28 !!

And the BLOOD of the SON of God was TRAMPLED underfoot and counted THE BLOOD a COMMON THING .

I have 3 books with thousand figures of speech , written by E W BULLINGER .

dan p

Yes, I understand about the figures of speech in the bible, but what about my questions about where it says that Jesus was addressing Israel when He instituted the Supper, and what you meant by saying that the Lord's Supper was given only to Paul.

 

[Dan Perez]

Yes, I understand about the figures of speech in the bible, but what about my questions about where it says that Jesus was addressing Israel when He instituted the Supper, and what you meant by saying that the Lord's Supper was given only to Paul.

In Matt 26:26 Jesus is addressing the 12 apostles >

But the 12 apostles are ones that are preaching to Israel , the Gospel of the Kingdom

And verse 29 Jesus will NOT // is a DISJUNCATIVE PARTICIPLE NEGATIVE and means Jesus will NVERRRRRRRRRR ever drink it a new with you in my Father's Kingdom .

Verse 28 says , which is my BLOOD of the NEW COVENANT !!

Which is all Israel and all the 4 gospels were written to Israel , period !!

Also the BODY of CHRIST is not part of the NEW COVENANT .

dan p

 

[David Lamb]

In Matt 26:26 Jesus is addressing the 12 apostles >

But the 12 apostles are ones that are preaching to Israel , the Gospel of the Kingdom

And verse 29 Jesus will NOT // is a DISJUNCATIVE PARTICIPLE NEGATIVE and means Jesus will NVERRRRRRRRRR ever drink it a new with you in my Father's Kingdom .

Verse 28 says , which is my BLOOD of the NEW COVENANT !!

Which is all Israel and all the 4 gospels were written to Israel , period !!

Also the BODY of CHRIST is not part of the NEW COVENANT .

dan p

Thanks for replying, Dan. I still don't agree that the words Jesus spoke when He instituted the Lord's Supper apply only to Israel. The apostle Paul certainly didn't think that, for he wrote about keeping the Supper to the church in Corinth.

I don't agree that the gospels were written to Israel. Mark and Luke were written with a gentile readership in mind. Luke for example, explains where Jewish cities were. He even addresses the gospel to Theophilus, a gentile, and Luke himself was a gentile.

I am not sure why you brought up the matter of Jesus saying that He would no longer drink of the fruit of the vine until He drinks it in His Father's kingdom, as I had no mentioned that matter.

I don't understand what you mean by "Also the BODY of CHRIST is not part of the NEW COVENANT." As we're discussing the Lord's Supper, I assume you mean His actual body, or His body as represented by the bread, rather than the church which is called the body of Christ:

“Now you are the body of Christ, and members individually.” (1Co 12:27 NKJV)

 

[Dan Perez]

Thanks for replying, Dan. I still don't agree that the words Jesus spoke when He instituted the Lord's Supper apply only to Israel. The apostle Paul certainly didn't think that, for he wrote about keeping the Supper to the church in Corinth.

I don't agree that the gospels were written to Israel. Mark and Luke were written with a gentile readership in mind. Luke for example, explains where Jewish cities were. He even addresses the gospel to Theophilus, a gentile, and Luke himself was a gentile.

I am not sure why you brought up the matter of Jesus saying that He would no longer drink of the fruit of the vine until He drinks it in His Father's kingdom, as I had no mentioned that matter.

I don't understand what you mean by "Also the BODY of CHRIST is not part of the NEW COVENANT." As we're discussing the Lord's Supper, I assume you mean His actual body, or His body as represented by the bread, rather than the church which is called the body of Christ:

“Now you are the body of Christ, and members individually.” (1Co 12:27 NKJV)

In your last line , are Jews in the BODY OF CHRIST , because Israel was set aside in Acts 28:25-28 ??

OR , how are jews saved today , IF you have a verse ??

dan p

Is 1 Cor 12:27 speaking to Israel or to only Gentiles ??

 

[David Lamb]

In your last line , are Jews in the BODY OF CHRIST , because Israel was set aside in Acts 28:25-28 ??

OR , how are jews saved today , IF you have a verse ??

dan p

Is 1 Cor 12:27 speaking to Israel or to only Gentiles ??

1 Corinthians was addressed to the church at Corinth:

“To the church of God which is at Corinth, to those who are sanctified in Christ Jesus, called [to be] saints, with all who in every place call on the name of Jesus Christ our Lord, both theirs and ours:” (1Co 1:2 NKJV)

Corinth was a Gentile city, and Paul was sent to take the gospel to Gentiles, so the letter is to Christians, most, if not all, of whom would have been Gentiles.

As to the question of how Jews are saved today, they are saved in exactly the same way as Gentiles, by believing on the Lord Jesus Christ.

 

[Dan Perez]

1 Corinthians was addressed to the church at Corinth:

“To the church of God which is at Corinth, to those who are sanctified in Christ Jesus, called [to be] saints, with all who in every place call on the name of Jesus Christ our Lord, both theirs and ours:” (1Co 1:2 NKJV)

Corinth was a Gentile city, and Paul was sent to take the gospel to Gentiles, so the letter is to Christians, most, if not all, of whom would have been Gentiles.

As to the question of how Jews are saved today, they are saved in exactly the same way as Gentiles, by believing on the Lord Jesus Christ.

If jews are saved the same way as Gentiles ARE saved , where is your verse that says that , since Israel was set aside

in Acts 28:25-28 ??

dan p

 

[David Lamb]

If jews are saved the same way as Gentiles ARE saved , where is your verse that says that , since Israel was set aside

in Acts 28:25-28 ??

dan p

The Jews in those verses are a particular group of Jews, not the whole nation:

“So when they did not agree among themselves, they departed after Paul had said one word: "The Holy Spirit spoke rightly through Isaiah the prophet to our fathers, "saying, ‘Go to this people and say: "Hearing you will hear, and shall not understand; And seeing you will see, and not perceive; For the hearts of this people have grown dull. Their ears are hard of hearing, And their eyes they have closed, Lest they should see with [their] eyes and hear with [their] ears, Lest they should understand with [their] hearts and turn, So that I should heal them."’ "Therefore let it be known to you that the salvation of God has been sent to the Gentiles, and they will hear it!"” (Ac 28:25-28 NKJV)

That doesn't mean that no Jews believed on the Lord Jesus Christ and were saved. Think of Nicodemus, Joseph of Arimathea, the brothers of Jesus. Then there is this verse:

“Then Jesus said to those Jews who believed Him, "If you abide in My word, you are My disciples indeed.” (Joh 8:31 NKJV)

 

[Dan Perez]

The Jews in those verses are a particular group of Jews, not the whole nation:

“So when they did not agree among themselves, they departed after Paul had said one word: "The Holy Spirit spoke rightly through Isaiah the prophet to our fathers, "saying, ‘Go to this people and say: "Hearing you will hear, and shall not understand; And seeing you will see, and not perceive; For the hearts of this people have grown dull. Their ears are hard of hearing, And their eyes they have closed, Lest they should see with [their] eyes and hear with [their] ears, Lest they should understand with [their] hearts and turn, So that I should heal them."’ "Therefore let it be known to you that the salvation of God has been sent to the Gentiles, and they will hear it!"” (Ac 28:25-28 NKJV)

That doesn't mean that no Jews believed on the Lord Jesus Christ and were saved. Think of Nicodemus, Joseph of Arimathea, the brothers of Jesus. Then there is this verse:

“Then Jesus said to those Jews who believed Him, "If you abide in My word, you are My disciples indeed.” (Joh 8:31 NKJV)

Then you believe that JOHN was written to Jews only ??

What about John 1:31-33 , and I say it is for Israel ONLY !!

And how are Jews saved ?? And how are Gentiles saved ??

dan p

 

[David Lamb]

Then you believe that JOHN was written to Jews only ??

What about John 1:31-33 , and I say it is for Israel ONLY !!

And how are Jews saved ?? And how are Gentiles saved ??

dan p

I believe that John was writing mainly to Jews, unlike Mark and Luke, who had a gentile readership in mind. But I don't know how you got that from what I posted. I did quote one verse from John as an example of Jews who believed in Jesus, that's all. As for how sinners are saved, whether Jews or Gentiles, I have already said it is by believing in the Lord Jesus Christ. Speaking to Jews, Jesus said:

“"Therefore I said to you that you will die in your sins; for if you do not believe that I am He, you will die in your sins."” (Joh 8:24 NKJV)

The Philippian jailer, a Gentile, was told to believe on the Lord Jesus Christ to be saved.

 

[Dan Perez]

I don't think that's what is says. It says cup (potērion, Accusative Neuter Singular) so one cup that He gave to them and told them to drink of it, all of them. So the cup had to go around.

Aristarkos

And Luke 22:17 reads , And he took then cup , and gave thanks , and said , gave thanks , and DIVIDE // DIAMERIZO is a verb

and is AORIST TENSE , ACTIVE VOICE , in the IMPERIATIVE VOICE , in the Plural , AMONG YOURSELVES // HEAUTOU

is a REFEXIVE // PRONOUN , in the DATIVE CASE , in the PLURAL , G1438

dan p

 

[T.i.m.o.t.h.y.]

In Matthew 26:26 Jesus sat down with the 12 disciples and in verse 26 gave them the bread , and He gave to them and said , Take and eat ,

this is my body !!

In verse 27 he took the cup and gave to them , saying , DRINK ye all of IT !!

In verse 26 , Jesus does not says eat ye all of the BREAD ?? Why not ??

And in verse 27 Jesus says of the cup , DRINK YE ALL OF IT ??

Your thoughts as to why the difference of verse 26 and 27 , between the BODY and His BLOOD ??

dan p , H 137

The focus of why Jesus wanted them to eat the bread was because it represented his body. Like the Passover lamb in Egypt. They were instructed to eat all of it. Jesus had taken one whole bread and gave the 12 disciples each a portion so when all were given portions, the bread was evenly divided up between them. There was none left over.

Then Jesus said concerning the cup of wine that represented his blood that he'd shed at the crucifixion, "Drink all of it."

The wine in one cup passed around to each of them assured that all was evenly divided up between them. There was none left over.

Jesus had not said "Eat all of the bread" because He had yet to say, Drink all the wine in the cup". Not saying for the bread is acceptable grammar when directing someone to do two similar things.. it's better to say the final direction at the last. Which is "All of it" concerning both the bread and wine. Otherwise if Jesus said "All of it" concerning the bread, it would have made the drinking of all of it, redundant. Or, put more simply, to say it for each, is bad grammar.

 

[Dan Perez]

And Luke 22:17 reads , And he took then cup , and gave thanks , and said , gave thanks , and DIVIDE // DIAMERIZO is a verb

and is AORIST TENSE , ACTIVE VOICE , in the IMPERIATIVE VOICE , in the Plural , AMONG YOURSELVES // HEAUTOU

is a REFEXIVE // PRONOUN , in the DATIVE CASE , in the PLURAL , G1438

dan p

And first that the CUP in Luke 22:17 did all the disciple have there own cup .

Jew are were and were DIVIDE it among yourselves .

A verve as to how a Jew is saved today is found in 2 Cor 3:13--15

dan p

 

[T.i.m.o.t.h.y.]

And first that the CUP in Luke 22:17 did all the disciple have there own cup .

Jew are were and were DIVIDE it among yourselves .

To emphasis sharing of the same.. in the Jewish culture and for spiritual benefit to each.. dividing a drink in the case of the disciples is for each person to take a swallow from the same cup. Jesus' personal cup at that meal. They were all partaking of the wine which represented the yet future shedding of Jesus' blood for the forgiveness of their sins.

Many times how Jesus did things had great significance. And always, how God did/does things has abundant significance.

A verve as to how a Jew is saved today is found in 2 Cor 3:13--15

dan p

Paul describes their spiritual dimness as a veil over their eyes. So they know in part and not in fullness. The text is about how their understanding must be enlightened in Christ.
The same thing can occur with any Christian who reads the Bible and uses their own understanding concerning whatever they read. Their mistaken interpretations have to be removed by Christ- the anointing- so thereby to know- gain revelation knowledge about all things that pertain to life and godliness.
The more you rightly discern or know, the more you grow in Christ.

 

[Dan Perez]

To emphasis sharing of the same.. in the Jewish culture and for spiritual benefit to each.. dividing a drink in the case of the disciples is for each person to take a swallow from the same cup. Jesus' personal cup at that meal. They were all partaking of the wine which represented the yet future shedding of Jesus' blood for the forgiveness of their sins.

Many times how Jesus did things had great significance. And always, how God did/does things has abundant significance.


Paul describes their spiritual dimness as a veil over their eyes. So they know in part and not in fullness. The text is about how their understanding must be enlightened in Christ.
The same thing can occur with any Christian who reads the Bible and uses their own understanding concerning whatever they read. Their mistaken interpretations have to be removed by Christ- the anointing- so thereby to know- gain revelation knowledge about all things that pertain to life and godliness.
The more you rightly discern or know, the more you grow in Christ.

Be glad if you reply with a verse , why not , just asking ???

dan p