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colen

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That the Greek New Testament was manipulated is quite clear. It has been proven that the Septuagint contained the name of God and they were so respectful that they kept the name after the Hebrew language. So they did not "translate" a name, but left it as it was. But then, later on, people changed the Septuagint, changed the name of the strong God by "Kyrios" and that is not all, they also made many spelling mistakes. I am sure that also the New Testament had no "Jesus" or "Kyrios", but the true name of God and this was replaced later.
But what happened to the original New Testament? And was the New Testament initially in Hebrew? According to Jerome the Gospel of Matthew was originally Hebrew, so it is pretty sure that the whole New Testament was Hebrew.

Something strange happened with the New Testament, but probably also with the Old Testament:

Jesus' incarnation
Therefore, when he comes into the world, he says: "Sacrifices and meal offerings you did not want, but a body you prepared for me; you did not take pleasure in burnt offerings and sacrifices for sin. (Greek New Testament)

Thou hadst no pleasure in sacrifice and meat offering; but a body you prepared for me: Thou didst not ask for burnt offerings and sin offerings. (Septuagint Old Testament)

Thou hadst no pleasure in sacrifice and meat offering; thou hast digged me ears: Thou didst not ask for burnt offerings and sin offerings. (Masoretic Old Testament)
 
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colen

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The so-called Jews have not only falsified the passage with the incarnation, they have meanwhile also manipulated the passage in Zechariah, where it is written: "And they will look upon me whom they have pierced", instead of "me" as it is written in the old texts they have written "him". With the argument that it is unimaginable for them that God would be pierced. But unfortunately they did not understand the passage.
 
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thecolorsblend

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According to Jerome the Gospel of Matthew was originally Hebrew, so it is pretty sure that the whole New Testament was Hebrew
Yeah, this is big brain time.
 
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pescador

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That the Greek New Testament was manipulated is quite clear. It has been proven that the Septuagint contained the name of God and they were so respectful that they kept the name after the Hebrew language. So they did not "translate" a name, but left it as it was. But then, later on, people changed the Septuagint, changed the name of the strong God by "Kyrios" and that is not all, they also made many spelling mistakes. I am sure that also the New Testament had no "Jesus" or "Kyrios", but the true name of God and this was replaced later.
But what happened to the original New Testament? And was the New Testament initially in Hebrew? According to Jerome the Gospel of Matthew was originally Hebrew, so it is pretty sure that the whole New Testament was Hebrew.

Something strange happened with the New Testament, but probably also with the Old Testament:

Jesus' incarnation
Therefore, when he comes into the world, he says: "Sacrifices and meal offerings you did not want, but a body you prepared for me; you did not take pleasure in burnt offerings and sacrifices for sin. (Greek New Testament)

Thou hadst no pleasure in sacrifice and meat offering; but a body you prepared for me: Thou didst not ask for burnt offerings and sin offerings. (Septuagint Old Testament)

Thou hadst no pleasure in sacrifice and meat offering; thou hast digged me ears: Thou didst not ask for burnt offerings and sin offerings. (Masoretic Old Testament)

Translation is an art as well as a science. Many decisions have to be made about vocabulary, verb tenses, idioms, etc. when translating from one language to another.

In the example, either the Septuagint translators decided a) to translate the idiom exactly or b) introduced a Koine Greek idiom that makes no sense in English. I prefer the newest and best translations, e.g., the NET Bible, the NIV, because they're in the language I use to think, read, write, and speak.
 
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Dansiph

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That the Greek New Testament was manipulated is quite clear. It has been proven that the Septuagint contained the name of God and they were so respectful that they kept the name after the Hebrew language. So they did not "translate" a name, but left it as it was. But then, later on, people changed the Septuagint, changed the name of the strong God by "Kyrios" and that is not all, they also made many spelling mistakes. I am sure that also the New Testament had no "Jesus" or "Kyrios", but the true name of God and this was replaced later.
But what happened to the original New Testament? And was the New Testament initially in Hebrew? According to Jerome the Gospel of Matthew was originally Hebrew, so it is pretty sure that the whole New Testament was Hebrew.

Something strange happened with the New Testament, but probably also with the Old Testament:

Jesus' incarnation
Therefore, when he comes into the world, he says: "Sacrifices and meal offerings you did not want, but a body you prepared for me; you did not take pleasure in burnt offerings and sacrifices for sin. (Greek New Testament)

Thou hadst no pleasure in sacrifice and meat offering; but a body you prepared for me: Thou didst not ask for burnt offerings and sin offerings. (Septuagint Old Testament)

Thou hadst no pleasure in sacrifice and meat offering; thou hast digged me ears: Thou didst not ask for burnt offerings and sin offerings. (Masoretic Old Testament)
Why would letters to Greek places be written in Hebrew?
 
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Akita Suggagaki

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According to Jerome the Gospel of Matthew was originally Hebrew, so it is pretty sure that the whole New Testament was Hebrew.

Why would Paul write to Greek and Roman non Jews in Hebrew?
 
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colen

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Why would letters to Greek places be written in Hebrew?
I strongly assume that the respective churches had a man who knew Hebrew, who then translated it for his church and taught them.

The Hebrew language is the language of God, with this language He created the created and with this language He spoke to the first man.
That God's word was written in his language is quite clear.
 
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thecolorsblend

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But Colen wants is all to be Hebrew. I 'm pretty sure its all Greek.
Me too. My understanding is that the only real debate happening in scholarly circles is whether the original language was Greek (which is what most people think) or Aramaic (which almost nobody thinks). But I'm not aware of very many credible scholars who insist on Hebrew.
 
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topher694

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I strongly assume that the respective churches had a man who knew Hebrew, who then translated it for his church and taught them.

The Hebrew language is the language of God, with this language He created the created and with this language He spoke to the first man.
That God's word was written in his language is quite clear.
God's language, huh? You're quite entertaining.
 
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Radagast

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That the Greek New Testament was manipulated is quite clear. It has been proven that the Septuagint contained the name of God and they were so respectful that they kept the name after the Hebrew language.

There are versions of the LXX that have the Tetragrammaton in archaic Hebrew script, and others that use kurios, and still others that have a blank space.

I am sure that also the New Testament had no "Jesus" or "Kyrios"

The New Testament had "Jesus" and "Kurios" from the very beginning.
 
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Radagast

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Me too. My understanding is that the only real debate happening in scholarly circles is whether the original language was Greek (which is what most people think) or Aramaic (which almost nobody thinks). But I'm not aware of very many credible scholars who insist on Hebrew.

The whole New Testament was certainly composed in Greek.

It is possible that Matthew (and Luke) incorporates a Greek translation of an earlier Aramaic proto-gospel, now lost. There is some support in early Christian writings for that idea.

This is as close to the original as we can get physically, from around the year 140, in an Egyptian copy of John. It's Greek (and also, interestingly, from a book with pages, not a scroll).

768px-JRL19071950.jpg
 
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