One thing that YEC's have said in the past (even on some current threads) is that it is always clear when Scripture is meant to be read non-literally and all the rest should be read literally. While I of course take issue with the idea that we should treat a "literal" reading as somehow a default interpretation absent some specific indication otherwise, I want to look at this question of whether it is always so clear.
While most can spot a parable from Jesus, and know that is not meant to be read as literal history. Others have been debated for centuries: Song of Solomon, Jonah, the Creation accounts, Babel, the Flood, Esther and Job. We have discussed Song of Solomon, and most YEC's simply don't respond to the question of whether they read it as literal (an erotic love story) or figurative (speaking of Christ and the Church). But what about Job, then?
C.S. Lewis indicates that he, like Calvin, does not read this as literal history. Others have read it as literal history. What do you think? Why?
While most can spot a parable from Jesus, and know that is not meant to be read as literal history. Others have been debated for centuries: Song of Solomon, Jonah, the Creation accounts, Babel, the Flood, Esther and Job. We have discussed Song of Solomon, and most YEC's simply don't respond to the question of whether they read it as literal (an erotic love story) or figurative (speaking of Christ and the Church). But what about Job, then?
C.S. Lewis indicates that he, like Calvin, does not read this as literal history. Others have read it as literal history. What do you think? Why?