Where did I John 5:7 come from? Why is it found today in the King James Bible? And who put it there?
The editors of the "Critical and Experimental Commentary" were forced to admit this verse is NOT found in ANY of the old manuscripts of the Bible and was not found in the manuscripts of the Latin Vulgate until as late as the eighth century! Notice their confession:
"The only Greek MSS., IN ANY FORM, which support the words, "in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost, and these three are one: and there are three that bear witness in earth," are the Montfortianus of Dublin, copied from the MODERN Latin Vulgate; the Revianus, copied from the Complutensian Polyglot; a MS. at Naples, with the words added IN THE MARGIN BY A RECENT HAND; Ottobonianus, 298, of the FIFTEENTH CENTURY, the Greek of which is a TRANSLATION of the accompanying Latin. ALL THE OLD VERSIONS OMIT THE WORDS. The OLDEST MSS. of the Vulgate OMIT THEM, the earliest Vulgate MS. which has them being Wizanburgensis, 99, of the EIGHTH CENTURY.
Even Adam Clarke confesses in his "Commentary": "But it is likely this verse is NOT GENUINE. It is wanting in every MS. of this epistle written BEFORE the invention of printing, one excepted, the "Codex Montfortii", in Trinity College, Dublin
Clarke continues, "It is wanting in both the Syriac, all the Arabic, Ethiopic, the Coptic, Sahidic, Armenian, Slavonian, etc., in a word, IN ALL THE ANCIENT VERSIONS but the "Vulgate"; and even of this version many of the most ancient and correct MSS. have it not. It is wanting also in ALL THE ANCIENT GREEK FATHERS; and in most even of the Latin."
How, then, did it creep into the text of the King James Version? Hear the voice of History:
I John 5:7 "... is not contained in any Greek manuscript which was written earlier than the fifth century. It is not cited by ANY of the Greek ecclesiastical writers; nor by any of the early Latin fathers, even when the subjects upon which they treated would naturally have led them to appeal to its authority. IT IS THEREFORE evidently SPURIOUS; and was first cited (though not as it now reads) by Virgilius Tapsensis, a Latin writer of no credit, in the latter end of the fifth century, but by whom FORGED, is of no great moment, as its design must be obvious to all." (The Emphatic Diaglott.)
Trinitarians grasp at I John 5:7 as a last straw to support their doctrine because NO OTHER SCRIPTURE IN ALL THE BIBLE CAN LEND CREDENCE to the pagan doctrine of a tri-une God!
The doctrine of "God in three Persons" is not Biblical! It originated in ancient paganism!
Babylonish and Oriental religions have LONG believed in triune divinities -- father, mother and child. The Egyptians worshiped Isis, Osiris, and Horus; the Babylonians deified the archrebel Nimrod, his wife Semiramis, and her illegitimate son Horus, known also as Gilgamesh. The widespread worship of a "Trinity" traces all the way back to this original trio!
God is NOT a Trinity. God is a FAMILY (Ephesians 3:15), composed of the Father, and Jesus Christ, the first-born AMONG MANY BRETHREN (Romans 8:29). The Bible does not teach a "closed" God-head. Rather, true Christians can become Sons of God -- very members of the GOD FAMILY -- if they are BORN AGAIN by His Spirit at the resurrection.
At the resurrection, Christians begotten by the Holy Spirit, are born into God's ruling Kingdom. We will become co-inheritors with Jesus Christ (Romans 8:17)! We will be born of God as He is! We will be glorified just like Jesus Christ -- we will be LIKE HIM, "for we shall see Him as He is" (I John 3:2) -- as VERY GOD!
Satan has deluded the world with his diabolical trinitarian concept in order to HIDE the marvelous truth about MAN'S DESTINY!
Side note:
In order of time sequence the earliest prehistoric revelation is in the New Testament, in John 1:1-3: "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. The same was in the beginning with God. All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made."
The Word was one Personage. God was another Personage. Yet the Word was a Personage separate from God-as shown in verse 14: "And the Word was [much later] made flesh, and dwelt among us.... " The Word became Jesus Christ.
The English "Word" is translated from the original Greek Logos, meaning "Word" or "Spokesman." That all things were made by Him is confirmed in Ephesians 3:9, where it speaks of God "who created all things by Jesus Christ." "He spake, and it was done" (Ps. 33:9).
Here are TWO Personages, yet both are GOD. How is that? A man named David Smith may have a son named Paul. But Paul, though a separate individual, is also a Smith. However, Jesus Christ did not become the Son of God until about 4 B.C., when born in human flesh of the virgin Mary. Prior to that, He had ALWAYS existed, even as had God. Christ was originally "without father, without mother, without descent, having neither beginning of days, nor end of life" (Heb. 7:3).
Now come to Genesis 1:1: "In the beginning God...." This was written originally by Moses in the Hebrew language. The English "God" is translated from the Hebrew Elohim-a uniplural noun. It is uniplural in the same sense as the words "family" and "church"-denoting more than one component forming the whole. Not two Gods-but ONE God consisting of more than one Person.
When, only nineteen hundred-plus years ago, Jesus was begotten of God in the womb of His human mother Mary, He was the only human ever so begotten prior to human birth! Yet, as we shall see later, humans may become begotten children of God-after human birth, but preceding a spiritual birth.
Throughout the first chapter of Genesis, the Hebrew name of God is always the Hebrew Elohim, which denotes both the Word and God.
But in chapter 2, Moses began adding another name for God-Yahweh in the Hebrew, usually combined with Elohim: Yahweh-Elohim. In the King James English translation, it is rendered "LORD God," which is somewhat misleading.
It is interesting, at this point, to explain this name Yahweh. There is no one word in the English language which adequately translates it. It means "the self-existent, eternal-living, creative one." The Moffatt translation renders it "the Eternal." The Fenton translation uses "the Ever-Living." Personally, I prefer to use only the one word "Eternal," instead of "Lord."
In any event, the English "LORD" in the King James translation refers to that Person in the Godhead who in John 1:1 is called "the Word"-the very one who later became Jesus Christ.
Where is the Holy Spirit in this family, it isn't, It's a gift from God, Its just spirit that works with our spirit? There are 2 in the God family, God the Father, and his son Jesus Christ (God also)
Jere
The editors of the "Critical and Experimental Commentary" were forced to admit this verse is NOT found in ANY of the old manuscripts of the Bible and was not found in the manuscripts of the Latin Vulgate until as late as the eighth century! Notice their confession:
"The only Greek MSS., IN ANY FORM, which support the words, "in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost, and these three are one: and there are three that bear witness in earth," are the Montfortianus of Dublin, copied from the MODERN Latin Vulgate; the Revianus, copied from the Complutensian Polyglot; a MS. at Naples, with the words added IN THE MARGIN BY A RECENT HAND; Ottobonianus, 298, of the FIFTEENTH CENTURY, the Greek of which is a TRANSLATION of the accompanying Latin. ALL THE OLD VERSIONS OMIT THE WORDS. The OLDEST MSS. of the Vulgate OMIT THEM, the earliest Vulgate MS. which has them being Wizanburgensis, 99, of the EIGHTH CENTURY.
Even Adam Clarke confesses in his "Commentary": "But it is likely this verse is NOT GENUINE. It is wanting in every MS. of this epistle written BEFORE the invention of printing, one excepted, the "Codex Montfortii", in Trinity College, Dublin
Clarke continues, "It is wanting in both the Syriac, all the Arabic, Ethiopic, the Coptic, Sahidic, Armenian, Slavonian, etc., in a word, IN ALL THE ANCIENT VERSIONS but the "Vulgate"; and even of this version many of the most ancient and correct MSS. have it not. It is wanting also in ALL THE ANCIENT GREEK FATHERS; and in most even of the Latin."
How, then, did it creep into the text of the King James Version? Hear the voice of History:
I John 5:7 "... is not contained in any Greek manuscript which was written earlier than the fifth century. It is not cited by ANY of the Greek ecclesiastical writers; nor by any of the early Latin fathers, even when the subjects upon which they treated would naturally have led them to appeal to its authority. IT IS THEREFORE evidently SPURIOUS; and was first cited (though not as it now reads) by Virgilius Tapsensis, a Latin writer of no credit, in the latter end of the fifth century, but by whom FORGED, is of no great moment, as its design must be obvious to all." (The Emphatic Diaglott.)
Trinitarians grasp at I John 5:7 as a last straw to support their doctrine because NO OTHER SCRIPTURE IN ALL THE BIBLE CAN LEND CREDENCE to the pagan doctrine of a tri-une God!
The doctrine of "God in three Persons" is not Biblical! It originated in ancient paganism!
Babylonish and Oriental religions have LONG believed in triune divinities -- father, mother and child. The Egyptians worshiped Isis, Osiris, and Horus; the Babylonians deified the archrebel Nimrod, his wife Semiramis, and her illegitimate son Horus, known also as Gilgamesh. The widespread worship of a "Trinity" traces all the way back to this original trio!
God is NOT a Trinity. God is a FAMILY (Ephesians 3:15), composed of the Father, and Jesus Christ, the first-born AMONG MANY BRETHREN (Romans 8:29). The Bible does not teach a "closed" God-head. Rather, true Christians can become Sons of God -- very members of the GOD FAMILY -- if they are BORN AGAIN by His Spirit at the resurrection.
At the resurrection, Christians begotten by the Holy Spirit, are born into God's ruling Kingdom. We will become co-inheritors with Jesus Christ (Romans 8:17)! We will be born of God as He is! We will be glorified just like Jesus Christ -- we will be LIKE HIM, "for we shall see Him as He is" (I John 3:2) -- as VERY GOD!
Satan has deluded the world with his diabolical trinitarian concept in order to HIDE the marvelous truth about MAN'S DESTINY!
Side note:
In order of time sequence the earliest prehistoric revelation is in the New Testament, in John 1:1-3: "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. The same was in the beginning with God. All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made."
The Word was one Personage. God was another Personage. Yet the Word was a Personage separate from God-as shown in verse 14: "And the Word was [much later] made flesh, and dwelt among us.... " The Word became Jesus Christ.
The English "Word" is translated from the original Greek Logos, meaning "Word" or "Spokesman." That all things were made by Him is confirmed in Ephesians 3:9, where it speaks of God "who created all things by Jesus Christ." "He spake, and it was done" (Ps. 33:9).
Here are TWO Personages, yet both are GOD. How is that? A man named David Smith may have a son named Paul. But Paul, though a separate individual, is also a Smith. However, Jesus Christ did not become the Son of God until about 4 B.C., when born in human flesh of the virgin Mary. Prior to that, He had ALWAYS existed, even as had God. Christ was originally "without father, without mother, without descent, having neither beginning of days, nor end of life" (Heb. 7:3).
Now come to Genesis 1:1: "In the beginning God...." This was written originally by Moses in the Hebrew language. The English "God" is translated from the Hebrew Elohim-a uniplural noun. It is uniplural in the same sense as the words "family" and "church"-denoting more than one component forming the whole. Not two Gods-but ONE God consisting of more than one Person.
When, only nineteen hundred-plus years ago, Jesus was begotten of God in the womb of His human mother Mary, He was the only human ever so begotten prior to human birth! Yet, as we shall see later, humans may become begotten children of God-after human birth, but preceding a spiritual birth.
Throughout the first chapter of Genesis, the Hebrew name of God is always the Hebrew Elohim, which denotes both the Word and God.
But in chapter 2, Moses began adding another name for God-Yahweh in the Hebrew, usually combined with Elohim: Yahweh-Elohim. In the King James English translation, it is rendered "LORD God," which is somewhat misleading.
It is interesting, at this point, to explain this name Yahweh. There is no one word in the English language which adequately translates it. It means "the self-existent, eternal-living, creative one." The Moffatt translation renders it "the Eternal." The Fenton translation uses "the Ever-Living." Personally, I prefer to use only the one word "Eternal," instead of "Lord."
In any event, the English "LORD" in the King James translation refers to that Person in the Godhead who in John 1:1 is called "the Word"-the very one who later became Jesus Christ.
Where is the Holy Spirit in this family, it isn't, It's a gift from God, Its just spirit that works with our spirit? There are 2 in the God family, God the Father, and his son Jesus Christ (God also)
Jere
