I understand that when a Christian speaks in tongues, they're speaking in a heavenly language that they themselves cannot understand. I don't understand, however, the notion that Satan cannot understand tongues either. As Satan was previously the angel of light cast out of heaven, he had spent time in heaven - wouldn't he have then learned the heavenly language?
If tongues isn't something shared among angels and God, then I think that calling it the heavenly language is misleading and I have to wonder why it's called the heavenly language if it isn't understood by all who have been to heaven. I just doubt that an incorporeal entity has suffered retrograde amnesia and forgotten the language of the place where he previously resided.
I don't believe something just because I'm told that it's so, you see - I need to experience or study something to believe that it's true. I cannot speak in tongues [perhaps I can and I don't realise, though], and so I don't have an 'insiders' perspective on this. I don't believe that a being originally of heaven has forgotten the heavenly language, and I would like somebody to tell me how he has forgotten.
Again, if this is a case of a misleading title, then why call tongues the heavenly language? Surely it should be called God's language or the Spirit's language instead of the heavenly language if Satan himself, a former being of heaven, is somehow exempt of understanding?
I considered posting this in Ask a Chaplain, but then I thought that perhaps the freedom of debating with those of varied education regarding Christianity might make this more enlightening for me.
I naturally mean no disrespect and this is not an attempt to begin a theological debate, so moderators, please don't move or lock this - I'm trying to seek an answer as to why Satan doesn't understand tongues.
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While I'm here, how does one know whether they can speak in tongues or not?
If tongues isn't something shared among angels and God, then I think that calling it the heavenly language is misleading and I have to wonder why it's called the heavenly language if it isn't understood by all who have been to heaven. I just doubt that an incorporeal entity has suffered retrograde amnesia and forgotten the language of the place where he previously resided.
I don't believe something just because I'm told that it's so, you see - I need to experience or study something to believe that it's true. I cannot speak in tongues [perhaps I can and I don't realise, though], and so I don't have an 'insiders' perspective on this. I don't believe that a being originally of heaven has forgotten the heavenly language, and I would like somebody to tell me how he has forgotten.
Again, if this is a case of a misleading title, then why call tongues the heavenly language? Surely it should be called God's language or the Spirit's language instead of the heavenly language if Satan himself, a former being of heaven, is somehow exempt of understanding?
I considered posting this in Ask a Chaplain, but then I thought that perhaps the freedom of debating with those of varied education regarding Christianity might make this more enlightening for me.
I naturally mean no disrespect and this is not an attempt to begin a theological debate, so moderators, please don't move or lock this - I'm trying to seek an answer as to why Satan doesn't understand tongues.
- - -
While I'm here, how does one know whether they can speak in tongues or not?
