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Paul said the gift of tongues was a sign to the Jews. Common in the OT as judgement fell from foreign occupation.
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Paul said the gift of tongues was a sign to the Jews. Common in the OT as judgement fell from foreign occupation.JUDGMENT in general was the only reason Paul mentioned it in the first place. It had nothing to do with Greek Christians speaking in tongues. And judgment was the key to what type of sign tongues was to an unbeliever. It confirmed them in their unbelief when they mocked it.
Paul said the gift of tongues was a sign to the Jews. Common in the OT as judgement fell from foreign occupation.
He is showing that all forms of speech is lacking if not done in love.That is the subject of the whole chapter, but he referred to the tongues of men and of angels. Was that reference to the gift of tongues or not?
He is showing that all forms of speech is lacking if not done in love.
Well, unbelieving Jews then, to be more specific. Many Jews became Christians.No he didn't. He said it was a sign to the unbeliever. There are more unbelievers than just Jews. Besides, Paul was a Jew.
I don't think so. He's saying any speech you are capable of is lacking if not motivated by love.So he's referring to men not having love, and angels not having love, in a chapter that includes gifts?
Well, unbelieving Jews then, to be more specific. Many Jews became Christians.
The OT uses this phraseology for judgement several times against wicked Israel.No it has nothing to do with Jews, but all unbelievers in tongues. That is why if all come together speaking in tongues even the Greeks will say they are out of their minds.
I don't think so. He's saying any speech you are capable of is lacking if not motivated by love.
Just sayin' love makes what you say good.Then where did you get the idea that tongues was angelic tongues. You don't have another verse to stand on.
The OT uses this phraseology for judgement several times against wicked Israel.
Just sayin' love makes what you say good.
You are losing the meaning of the passage focusing on the incidentals. Paul could just as easily said if you bark like a dog and do not have love it falls short.No, don't change the subject. Where do you get the idea that tongues are angelic? Are you just making that up, or do you have scripture to stand on.
No, if you understand Greek, you must interpret it for those who do not.Furthermore, what do you make of this?
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
1 Corinthians 14:27-28
If anyone speaks in a tongue, two—or at the most three—should speak,
one at a time, and someone must interpret.
28 If there is no interpreter, the speaker should keep quiet
in the church and speak to himself and to God.
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
Not everyone, few as I understand it, who speak in tongues can interpret.
Which means that ONLY those with the gift of the interpretation of tongues understand what they are saying.
You are losing the meaning of the passage focusing on the incidentals. Paul could just as easily said if you bark like a dog and do not have love it falls short.
Okay, let's put all the theorizing aside and get practical.I think the edification you receive (emotional release) is one thing. But understanding the heavenly tongue was the basis for edification according to Paul. You can scream and benefit from even that.
No. But they did in the early church.Okay, let's put all the theorizing aside and get practical.
I asked this question in a previous post. It really needs to be answered.
When you speak in tongues do you understand it?
Paul is not teaching us about language. He is teaching about the motive behind our words.I'm asking you where you got the idea that the language spoken in tongues is angelic? I can't ask this question any clearer, but I will keep repeating it.
Paul is not teaching us about language. He is teaching about the motive behind our words.
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