The Torahic Kosher Project

[The Thadman]

In the future, I wish to start a project that entails lobbying major food distributors in the US and other countries to designate Torahic Kosher from Talmudic Kosher. Most Talmudic Kosher foods are marked with a small symbol (usually a letter U in a circle), yet Kosher, as found in the Talmud and Rabbinic teaching, does not completely match with Kosher as it is found in the Torah.

For example, under traditional Kosher, that most Jews in this day and age adhere to, one would not be allowed to eat a cheeseburger, as the command not to eat a goat-kid boiled in its mother's milk is extrapolated in interpretation. Not to belittle anyone's beliefs here on the forum, but I feel that such an extrapolation is unwarranted and adds to God's Word.

With that in mind, there are still foods that are not marked as Rabbinical/Talmudic Kosher that are still Kosher under the Torah on its own, which is why I think this project could be of use for Messianics worldwide.

The proposed symbol is a circle with a torah scroll in the center as shown below:

In addition to the symbol, a website with a database of all foods that bear the symbol will be erected for reference.

What does everyone think?

Shlomo,
-Steve-o

 

[Atkin]

Rabbinic/Talmudic authority should be the guide regarding such markings.

You would not be able to verify whether your view is more accurate than the established ones. How would Old Torahic references be found and how could the old Torahic approach be evaluated and applied in this era?

Lots of work involved.

 

[Henaynei]

In the future, I wish to start a project that entails lobbying major food distributors in the US and other countries to designate Torahic Kosher from Talmudic Kosher. Most Talmudic Kosher foods are marked with a small symbol (usually a letter U in a circle), yet Kosher, as found in the Talmud and Rabbinic teaching, does not completely match with Kosher as it is found in the Torah.

For example, under traditional Kosher, that most Jews in this day and age adhere to, one would not be allowed to eat a cheeseburger, as the command not to eat a goat-kid boiled in its mother's milk is extrapolated in interpretation. Not to belittle anyone's beliefs here on the forum, but I feel that such an extrapolation is unwarranted and adds to God's Word.

With that in mind, there are still foods that are not marked as Rabbinical/Talmudic Kosher that are still Kosher under the Torah on its own, which is why I think this project could be of use for Messianics worldwide.

The proposed symbol is a circle with a torah scroll in the center as shown below:

In addition to the symbol, a website with a database of all foods that bear the symbol will be erected for reference.

What does everyone think?

Shlomo,
-Steve-o

Who would be the central and widely accepted authority to determine what was or was not "Torahiclly" - previously "Biblically" - Kosher?? I know of less that 5 people in the entire movement whose training qualifies them to even consider such determination.

What happens in these cases is we end writing our OWN "Talmud" and placing our wisdom above the accumulated study and wisdom of thousands of g-dly and righteous men with literally a combined million years experience.

I an definately not for it. If you want to keep "biblically" kosher there is nothing stopping from setting your own standards and making your own selections

Oh yeah, and set up another wall of seperation between the MJs and the Jewish community.

Nice icon, though

 

[Hix]

Why try and split the two apart? The Talmud is not only part of the Torah it also explains it, people who know the Talmud can read through the Torah and pick up on every law the Talmud says even if they are imbetween the lines.

The mixing of milk and meat is hinted at in the Torah, it is fully explained in the Talmud however which the Mishna part was given to Moshe at Sinai. Really it does get slightly annoying how gentiles come along and think they can do away with Jewish scripture in interperating a Jewish law *shakes head*.

G-d in His infinite wisdom devised the consummate system for transmitting Torah throughout the generations. It is not a written law, and it is not an oral law. It's both.

Shalom and G-d bless
~Hix~

 

[BenTsion]

The Thadman,
Shalom!
While I understand where you're trying to get, I don't think sticking to Biblically-kosher food (as opposed to Talmudic kosher) is THAT hard that we need a label. Talmudic-Kosher is far more complex and if there is no such label, it is often impossible to determine whether such food is indeed kosher. If you stick to, say, Lev. 11 or Acts 15, you yourself can easily figure that out. Many of us Messianics have been doing it for a long time.

Also, Henaynei has a great point: why set up another barrier between non-Messianic and Messianic Jews?

And finally, I can think of two good reasons why the food industry would refuse to make such move. First of all, there aren't enough Messianics out there to justify such investment. Second, I'm afraid they'd think that they have enough trouble already with one 'kosher standard'... I bet they wouldn't be willing to adopt a new standard.

Anyway, don't let that discourage you! I mean, you seem to be a very creative person and it is also great to find people with initiative. I can think of many ways in which these two qualities you have could be very useful to do G-d's work!

May HaShem bless you!

Your brother in Messiah,
Ben Tsion

 

[Henaynei]

Why try and split the two apart? The Talmud is not only part of the Torah it also explains it, people who know the Talmud can read through the Torah and pick up on every law the Talmud says even if they are imbetween the lines.

The mixing of milk and meat is hinted at in the Torah, it is fully explained in the Talmud however which the Mishna part was given to Moshe at Sinai. Really it does get slightly annoying how gentiles come along and think they can do away with Jewish scripture in interperating a Jewish law *shakes head*.

I agree - and , as a gentile, I extend my sincere and heartfelt apologies - not for Thadman per se [he is able to do that himself I am sure, should he agree] - but just for the whole "re-write Judaism and tradition" issue all together.... forgive us - quite often we really "know not what we do" - even when we *think* we do!!! LOL [w/just a small pained grimace]

 

[simchat_torah]

I have been refraining from making comments until I saw how the general community viewed this concept.

I hardly see a need what so ever for a new standard. Currently, what is ruled as Kosher Rabbinically, and according to the Talmud, will not violate Kosher set up in the Torah. What do I mean by this?

You won't be eating anything the Torah declares *outright* as unclean. You won't be breaking Kosher by keeping the Talmudic standards. Granted, you may want to make a broader scope of what is considered clean, but by adhering to the Talmudic standards one will not break Kosher.

That in itself is not a proof, I'm merely pointing out the lack of need for a new standard to be set.

Now, as far as the proposition is concerned....

I have to agree with Henaynei on this. Would not the thousands of years of Rabbinical insight for Torah interpretation stand up better than one of us christian goy who have recently began taking on Mitzvot? All too often we get puffed up in our wisdom considering ourselves to be masters of the Torah. All too often we are ready to spit upon the insight of the Rabbis. All too often we want to invent and create a new way.

Christianity did this and now look at its condition.

Now, let's pretend we did, with absolute convincing finality, discern that there are problems with the Talmudic interpretation of the Mitzvot. Who is to create the new standard? What "messianic" Beit Din is to make these halachic rulings? Guess what... one doesn't exist.

To what are we left with? Either one can read and attempt to interpret their own halachic version of Kosher themselves (which btw, is always evolving and changing) or one is to trust the Rabbis and their millenium of wisdom in these Kosher matters.

I can't say that I fall perfectly in either camp. Yes, I do see the value in the Talmudic interpretation of Kosher. However, there are things I don't understand... and in my feeble understanding of Hebrew and the Torah I think I have gleaned a better way. Am I right? Probably not.

Personally, I uphold Rabbinic Kosher as much as possible in my life right now. Even if I did see a need for what Thadman proposes, there is absolutely no one (no beit din) to take up this call. I'm not saying I blindly trust the Rabbis. We are all human and tend to lean towars error often. However, I am not so puffed up in my own wisdom that I think I have all the answers.

This is certainly a touchy matter and there is no right answer.

Shalom,
Yafet.

 

[Sephania]

Why try and split the two apart? The Talmud is not only part of the Torah it also explains it, people who know the Talmud can read through the Torah and pick up on every law the Talmud says even if they are imbetween the lines.
Shalom and G-d bless
~Hix~

Please forgive me if I am reading this wrong but are you saying that the Talmud is PART of the Torah?

 

[The Thadman]

Please forgive me if I am reading this wrong but are you saying that the Talmud is PART of the Torah?

This is where Hix (along with many other Messianics, it seems) and I seriously disagree

Shlomo,
-Steve-o

 

[simchat_torah]

I don't think this (talmud being a part of torah) is a Messianic doctrine in the slightest. While MJ'ism is obviously varied, this idea is simply not found in the overwhelming majority.

peace and all that good stuff
-yafet

 

[Henaynei]

My understanding is better stated as "Mishna/Oral Tradition is part of Torah" - while Talmud is the Mishna and the commentaries on Mishna, those not being part of Torah, but needed and useful and honorable nonetheless.

 

[The Thadman]

My understanding is better stated as "Mishna/Oral Tradition is part of Torah" - while Talmud is the Mishna and the commentaries on Mishna, those not being part of Torah, but needed and useful and honorable nonetheless.

"Which Mishnah?" is the question. For example, the Mishnah in the Talmud represents many differing (often diametrically opposed) opinions that banter back and forth without any final decision.

I personally feel that the Oral Traditions (which are very relevant in any talk of Kosher) break the Torah's declaration never to add or subtract from God's Word, as (for example) we are told "do not eat a goat-kid boiled in its mother's milk" to "you may not eat any meat and any milk together whatsoever" to some traditions which state "you MUST have separate kitchens for meat and milk." The milk and meat are going to the same place (your stomach), it's just that when you boil a goat kid in its mother's milk, it'll mess with your body's chemical balance.

I know that there are many people who claim that the Oral Traditions date back to Sinai, but there is no record of them. The claims of Oral Tradition dating from Sinai date back to a time after Ezra, and absolutely nothing exists before then.

Shlomo,
-Steve-o

 

[Henaynei]

youth has such a refreshing way of being so sure of itself - I miss my youth

 

[Hix]

I know all about what you say Thadman but they may not have existed in writing but they certainly existed orally. Why? Becuase there is a limit to how much can be transmitted in text, HaShem devised a special way in which the Torah could be transmitted, the basis on paper and the rest of it must be learned orally, encouraging every Jew to constantly review and remember. This was G-d's objective in devising the Oral Torah. Because Judaism is not a reference work made to sit on a shelf. Torah is meant to be lived and internalized. To do that, you need to know it backwards and forwards. That's why God gave us both a Written Torah and an Oral Torah.

Because the Jews have had such a turbulent history, parts of the Oral Torah were written down at the time of Ezra because it was in danger of getting lost. Even still, the majority of the information remains oral until today. The texts are the Jews and theirs to show to the world.

Shalom and G-d bless
~Hix~

 

[The Thadman]

I know all about what you say Thadman but they may not have existed in writing but they certainly existed orally. Why? Becuase there is a limit to how much can be transmitted in text, HaShem devised a special way in which the Torah could be transmitted, the basis on paper and the rest of it must be learned orally, encouraging every Jew to constantly review and remember. This was G-d's objective in devising the Oral Torah. Because Judaism is not a reference work made to sit on a shelf. Torah is meant to be lived and internalized. To do that, you need to know it backwards and forwards. That's why God gave us both a Written Torah and an Oral Torah.

Because the Jews have had such a turbulent history, parts of the Oral Torah were written down at the time of Ezra because it was in danger of getting lost. Even still, the majority of the information remains oral until today. The texts are the Jews and theirs to show to the world.

Shalom and G-d bless
~Hix~

What you're telling me concerning Oral Law is completely unfounded with nothing to support it.

Where in all of the 5 Books of Moses does it even mention this idea of an "Oral Torah"? On the other hand, I can show you many places where it says "don't add or subtract from God's Word" or references to a written book.

Deut 4:
2 You shall not add to the word which I command you, neither shall you diminish from it, that you may keep the commandments of Yahweh your God which I command you.

((And just to make a point, extrapolating that one cannot eat meat and milk together from being told not to eat a goat-kid boiled in its mother's milk does not seem to be a problem with this.))

Exodus 34:
27 Yahweh said to Moses, “Write you these words: for in accordance with these words I have made a covenant with you and with Israel.”

Deut 17:
18 It shall be, when he sits on the throne of his kingdom, that he shall write him a copy of this law in a book, out of that which is before the priests the Levites:
19 and it shall be with him, and he shall read therein all the days of his life; that he may learn to fear Yahweh his God, to keep all the words of this law and these statutes, to do them;

Deut 27:
2 It shall be on the day when you shall pass over the Jordan to the land which Yahweh your God gives you, that you shall set yourself up great stones, and plaster them with plaster:
3 and you shall write on them all the words of this law, when you are passed over; that you may go in to the land which Yahweh your God gives you, a land flowing with milk and honey, as Yahweh, the God of your fathers, has promised you.
8 You shall write on the stones all the words of this law very plainly.

Etc.

Shlomo,
-Steve-o

 

[Hix]

How can it be adding or taking away when it already existed before HaShem said that? Ive said my piece on the matter that the JEWISH people who were given the JEWISH scriptures by the JEWISH G-d at Sinai, were also given a detailed explaination of the Law to be passed from generation to generation to fully understand it as text has its limits. That is why Torah is special. Your entitled to believe what you wish about the JEWISH scriptures, at the end of the day I have faith that without the Oral Torah it is impossible to realise the full extent of the JEWISH law becuase the two work in harmony with each other.

So tell me, you say the Oral Torah is not mentioned in the written Torah, neither was the tale of Job which is set at the same time of Avraham, does that mean its not inspired either?

Shalom and G-d bless
~hix~

 

[The Thadman]

How can it be adding or taking away when it already existed before HaShem said that? Ive said my piece on the matter that the JEWISH people who were given the JEWISH scriptures by the JEWISH G-d at Sinai, were also given a detailed explaination of the Law to be passed from generation to generation to fully understand it as text has its limits. That is why Torah is special. Your entitled to believe what you wish about the JEWISH scriptures, at the end of the day I have faith that without the Oral Torah it is impossible to realise the full extent of the JEWISH law becuase the two work in harmony with each other.

In uniting myself with YHWH am I any less of a Jew?

In using the Oral Law, WHICH ORAL LAW do you follow? Why do all of the Oral Laws contradict eachother. The Talmud is a mishmash of Rabbim arguing back and forth over different legalisms. It's packed with such phrases as:

Shall we then assume that our Mishna states in accordance with Beth Shamai, as they so state plainly elsewhere, to which the Beth Hillel opposed and permitted?

So who do you follow?

What is a Muliar? A Boraitha states: "It is a vessel provided with an attachment for live coals, used for keeping water"; as for an Antikhi, Rabba says it is a Bekiri (a vessel similar to a Muliar, but of heavier construction and continually in use). R. Na'hman b. Itz'hak says: It is a Bedude (a large kettle with an attachment underneath for live coals). There is a Boraitha in support of the opinion of R. Na'hman: "The hot water in an Antikhi, even if the coals thereof are cleared away or damped, is not permitted to be used, for the heavy bottom keeps the heat."

What is a Muliar?

"But it is permitted," etc. The rabbis taught: One may pour hot water upon cold, but not cold upon hot water, so is the decree of Beth Shamai; Beth Hillel, however, allows both ways, provided a cup is used; but in a bathing-tub hot water upon cold is permitted, but cold water upon warm is not. But R. Simeon b. Menassiah forbids it. And Na'hman said that so the Halakha prevails. R. Joseph was about to say that a bucket is under the same ruling as a bathing-tub. Said Abayi to him: "So taught R. Hyya, that a bucket is not in this category."

So under what circumstances is hot water to be poured on cold, or cold water to be poured in hot on the Sabbath?

Your sole defense seems to be "this is how it always was," which is obviously not the case, given these wide ranges of teachings.

So tell me, you say the Oral Torah is not mentioned in the written Torah, neither was the tale of Job which is set at the same time of Avraham, does that mean its not inspired either?

Does Job claim to be the Torah of Moses?

Shalom and G-d bless
~hix~

Shlomo,
-Steve-o

 

[Hix]

The oral law is quite real. It came down from Sinai with Moses. The Written Torah tells us to do things, but the Oral Torah tells us HOW to do those things.

Exodus 22:16 "And if a man entice a maid that is not betrothed, and lie with her, he shall surely endow her to be his wife. If her father utterly refuse to give her unto him, he shall pay money according to the dowry of virgins."
Where are the instructions of this dowry? How much is it? It's not in the written Torah anywhere, because it's part of the oral law.

Deuteronomy 12:21 "If the place which the LORD thy G-d hath chosen to put his name there be too far from thee, then thou shalt kill of thy herd and of thy flock, which the LORD hath given thee, as I have commanded thee, and thou shalt eat in thy gates whatsoever thy soul lusteth after"
In this verse, we are told to slaughter animals as we had been commanded to do so. However, you don't find the instructions for kosher slaughter written anywhere.

Nehemiah 8:8 "So they read in the book in the law of G-d distinctly, and gave the sense, and caused them to understand the reading."
Ok this verse is significant, they read the book of the law and gave the SENCE, the Oral Torah is the sence which allows us to understand the reading

Deuteronomy 6:4 "Hear, O Israel: The LORD our G-d [is] one LORD: And thou shalt love the LORD thy G-d with all thine heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy might. And these words, which I command thee this day, shall be in thine heart: And thou shalt teach them diligently unto thy children, and shalt talk of them when thou sittest in thine house, and when thou walkest by the way, and when thou liest down, and when thou risest up. And thou shalt bind them for a sign upon thine hand, and they shall be as frontlets between thine eyes. And thou shalt write them upon the posts of thy house, and on thy gates"
Verse eight above is the commandment of tefillin. Without the oral law, this verse is up to more speculation and interpretation than one could ever hope to wade through. Tefillin is called "phylacteries" in the Brit Hadasha an example of the Bible using law found in the Oral Torah. Verse nine is about the mezuzot that adorn the doorposts and gates of Jewish homes. The oral law teaches how the tefillin and mezuzot are made properly. Without the oral law, these verses would be hopelessly misinterpreted in a thousand different ways.

Ezra 10:3 "Now therefore let us make a covenant with our G-d to put away all the wives, and such as are born of them, according to the counsel of my lord, and of those that tremble at the commandment of our G-d; and let it be done according to the law."
This is a breaking of a commandment mentioned in Dueteronomy, however the written Torah only mentions the putting away of the wife, it is the Oral Torah that mentions the children also. The two are inseperable, they work in harmony.

Zechariah 8:19 "Thus saith the LORD of hosts; The fast of the fourth [month], and the fast of the fifth, and the fast of the seventh, and the fast of the tenth, shall be to the house of Judah joy and gladness, and cheerful feasts; therefore love the truth and peace."
Here we have four rabbinically ordained fasts that predate the Second Temple period. Any orthodox Jew will be able to tell you what these four fasts are, and what they commemorate. These are the Fast of Tammuz, Tisha B'Av, the Fast of Gedaliah, and the Fast of Tevet, respectively. The rabbinical authorities of the time ordained that the Jewish people fast on those days to commemorate these events. Now, where on earth did the rabbis get their authority? People who say that the rabbis made things up as they went along believe that they had no right to do so. However, this is essentially incorrect. Had the rabbis been overstepping their authority, one would certainly think that G-d Himself would not have approved of the fasts.

AND the main one with regards to the Oral Torah:
Deuteronomy 17:8 "If there arise a matter too hard for thee in judgment, between blood and blood, between plea and plea, and between stroke and stroke, [being] matters of controversy within thy gates: then shalt thou arise, and get thee up into the place which the LORD thy G-d shall choose;And thou shalt come unto the priests the Levites, and unto the judge that shall be in those days, and enquire; and they shall shew thee the sentence of judgment: And thou shalt do according to the sentence, which they of that place which the LORD shall choose shall shew thee; and thou shalt observe to do according to all that they inform thee: According to the sentence of the law which they shall teach thee, and according to the judgment which they shall tell thee, thou shalt do: thou shalt not decline from the sentence which they shall shew thee, [to] the right hand, nor [to] the left. And the man that will do presumptuously, and will not hearken unto the priest that standeth to minister there before the LORD thy G-d, or unto the judge, even that man shall die: and thou shalt put away the evil from Israel. And all the people shall hear, and fear, and do no more presumptuously."
In Deuteronomy 30, the Lord tells us that the Torah is not in Heaven, but it is with us. He placed it in our hands. The judges were rabbis. The sages of two thousand years ago were of the same line of ordination. The Pharisees and the Sanhedrin weren't exceeding their authority. G-d had told them to legislate! Whatever direction that took the society in was therefore correct provided they didn't step outside existing law from Sinai. The people were bound by the Torah to follow their instructions, told not to deviate to the right or to the left.

So, even if you think that the rabbis made it all up it's still binding because it's given authority by the Bible!

Shalom and G-d bless
~Hix~

 

[Henaynei]

Part of the problem is trying to apply hellenistic logic dictates to hebraic logic systems - this leads to the hellenistic acedemic view that the hebraic statements are contadictory for in a hellenistic system of deduction and examination, they are.

Most modern systems of evaluation are today hellenistic, and it is nearly impossible for the imagination steeped in hellenism to convieve of a system that is so diametrically different and equally "right." For the hellenist system says "if it is wrong, it can not then be right."

 

[The Thadman]

You're reading into things Hix.

Exodus 22:16 "And if a man entice a maid that is not betrothed, and lie with her, he shall surely endow her to be his wife. If her father utterly refuse to give her unto him, he shall pay money according to the dowry of virgins."
Where are the instructions of this dowry? How much is it? It's not in the written Torah anywhere, because it's part of the oral law.

Deut 22:28-29
28 If a man find a lady who is a virgin, who is not pledged to be married, and lay hold on her, and lie with her, and they be found;
29 then the man who lay with her shall give to the lady’s father fifty shekels of silver, and she shall be his wife, because he has humbled her; he may not put her away all his days.

Deuteronomy 12:21 "If the place which the LORD thy G-d hath chosen to put his name there be too far from thee, then thou shalt kill of thy herd and of thy flock, which the LORD hath given thee, as I have commanded thee, and thou shalt eat in thy gates whatsoever thy soul lusteth after"
In this verse, we are told to slaughter animals as we had been commanded to do so. However, you don't find the instructions for kosher slaughter written anywhere.

He commanded to follow Biblical kosher. Nothing to do with how the animals are slaughtered. Read further on!:

Deuteronomy 12:21 and ONWARDS
21 If the place which Yahweh your God shall choose, to put his name there, be too far from you, then you shall kill of your herd and of your flock, which Yahweh has given you, as I have commanded you; and you may eat within your gates, after all the desire of your soul.
22 Even as the gazelle and as the hart is eaten, so you shall eat of it: the unclean and the clean may eat of it alike.
23 Only be sure that you don’t eat the blood: for the blood is the life; and you shall not eat the life with the flesh.
24 You shall not eat it; you shall pour it out on the earth as water.
25 You shall not eat it; that it may go well with you, and with your children after you, when you shall do that which is right in the eyes of Yahweh.
26 Only your holy things which you have, and your vows, you shall take, and go to the place which Yahweh shall choose:
27 and you shall offer your burnt offerings, the flesh and the blood, on the altar of Yahweh your God; and the blood of your sacrifices shall be poured out on the altar of Yahweh your God; and you shall eat the flesh.
28 Observe and hear all these words which I command you, that it may go well with you, and with your children after you forever, when you do that which is good and right in the eyes of Yahweh your God.

There is no such thing as a "kosher slaughter" in Torah The commands are listed right there in the same chapter. Don't eat the blood, can't be an unclean animal, etc. all defined within Torah.

Nehemiah 8:8 "So they read in the book in the law of G-d distinctly, and gave the sense, and caused them to understand the reading."
Ok this verse is significant, they read the book of the law and gave the SENCE, the Oral Torah is the sence which allows us to understand the reading

#1) The Hebrew LITTERALLY reads, "and gave an interpretation," or "and gave insight" (no definite article). I don't see any mention of Mishnah or Gemara, anywhere.

#2) Notice how they SEPERATED (the word "distinctly") the interpretation from the Torah. This insight was not Torah.

#3) If this were the Oral Torah, it's described as Ezra's interpretation. In other words it SURE as hell didn't come from Sinai.

This is a very tenuous argument, Hix.

Deuteronomy 6:4 "Hear, O Israel: The LORD our G-d [is] one LORD: And thou shalt love the LORD thy G-d with all thine heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy might. And these words, which I command thee this day, shall be in thine heart: And thou shalt teach them diligently unto thy children, and shalt talk of them when thou sittest in thine house, and when thou walkest by the way, and when thou liest down, and when thou risest up. And thou shalt bind them for a sign upon thine hand, and they shall be as frontlets between thine eyes. And thou shalt write them upon the posts of thy house, and on thy gates"
Verse eight above is the commandment of tefillin. Without the oral law, this verse is up to more speculation and interpretation than one could ever hope to wade through. Tefillin is called "phylacteries" in the Brit Hadasha an example of the Bible using law found in the Oral Torah. Verse nine is about the mezuzot that adorn the doorposts and gates of Jewish homes. The oral law teaches how the tefillin and mezuzot are made properly. Without the oral law, these verses would be hopelessly misinterpreted in a thousand different ways.

What's confusing here?

#1) Read how this is phrased: "And thou shalt bind them for a sign upon thine hand, and they shall be as frontlets between thine eyes."

We don't see the normal word for tying a knot here, but the word "to strengthen." So we're to strengthen his words upon our hands as a sign. Our actions.

They will be LIKE frontlets between your eyes. God never commanded Tefillin, yet this verse is verbatim in 4 of the 5 books of Torah (except Exodus 13:9 uses the term "memorial/in your memory" instead of "frontlets").

This entire verse, as I can see it, flows from the verse that comes at the beginning:

6 These words, which I command you this day, shall be on your heart;

Does this mean that we need to have surgery to implant them into our chest or brain? NO. We're to follow him in thought, and in deed.

#2) There is no archeological evidence to support Tefillin until thousands of years after Sinai.

#3) The forehead and hand is used figuratively throughout the Bible to indicate both thought and deed.

Revelation 14:9
9 Another angel, a third, followed them, saying with a great voice, “If anyone worships the beast and his image, and receives a mark on his forehead, or on his hand,
10 he also will drink of the wine of the wrath of God, which is prepared unmixed in the cup of his anger. He will be tormented with fire and sulfur in the presence of the holy angels, and in the presence of the Lamb.

Ezra 10:3 "Now therefore let us make a covenant with our G-d to put away all the wives, and such as are born of them, according to the counsel of my lord, and of those that tremble at the commandment of our G-d; and let it be done according to the law."
This is a breaking of a commandment mentioned in Dueteronomy, however the written Torah only mentions the putting away of the wife, it is the Oral Torah that mentions the children also. The two are inseperable, they work in harmony.

I don't see an Oral Torah at work here.

3 Now therefore let us make a covenant with our God to put away all the wives, and such as are born of them, according to the counsel of my lord, and of those who tremble at the commandment of our God; and let it be done according to the law.

There is a BIG separation here. The children being put away is at the counsel of Ezra, NOT God, NOT the Torah. The crowd wanted it to be done in accordance with the Torah as well, and this was brought up separately.

This is not helping your case.

Zechariah 8:19 "Thus saith the LORD of hosts; The fast of the fourth [month], and the fast of the fifth, and the fast of the seventh, and the fast of the tenth, shall be to the house of Judah joy and gladness, and cheerful feasts; therefore love the truth and peace."
Here we have four rabbinically ordained fasts that predate the Second Temple period. Any orthodox Jew will be able to tell you what these four fasts are, and what they commemorate. These are the Fast of Tammuz, Tisha B'Av, the Fast of Gedaliah, and the Fast of Tevet, respectively. The rabbinical authorities of the time ordained that the Jewish people fast on those days to commemorate these events. Now, where on earth did the rabbis get their authority? People who say that the rabbis made things up as they went along believe that they had no right to do so. However, this is essentially incorrect. Had the rabbis been overstepping their authority, one would certainly think that G-d Himself would not have approved of the fasts.

This COMPLETELY goes against what you're saying! God said that the four FASTS the Rabbim ordained were WRONG and turned them into FEASTS. God did NOT like their tradition because they were afflicting themselves, so what did he do? He picked them up, dusted them off and said, DON'T TO IT AGAIN.

Speaking of months, why doesn't the Jewish Calendar begin on the 1st of Abib as it was ordained as an ordinance forever?

AND the main one with regards to the Oral Torah:
Deuteronomy 17:8 "If there arise a matter too hard for thee in judgment, between blood and blood, between plea and plea, and between stroke and stroke, [being] matters of controversy within thy gates: then shalt thou arise, and get thee up into the place which the LORD thy G-d shall choose;And thou shalt come unto the priests the Levites, and unto the judge that shall be in those days, and enquire; and they shall shew thee the sentence of judgment: And thou shalt do according to the sentence, which they of that place which the LORD shall choose shall shew thee; and thou shalt observe to do according to all that they inform thee: According to the sentence of the law which they shall teach thee, and according to the judgment which they shall tell thee, thou shalt do: thou shalt not decline from the sentence which they shall shew thee, [to] the right hand, nor [to] the left. And the man that will do presumptuously, and will not hearken unto the priest that standeth to minister there before the LORD thy G-d, or unto the judge, even that man shall die: and thou shalt put away the evil from Israel. And all the people shall hear, and fear, and do no more presumptuously."
In Deuteronomy 30, the Lord tells us that the Torah is not in Heaven, but it is with us. He placed it in our hands. The judges were rabbis. The sages of two thousand years ago were of the same line of ordination. The Pharisees and the Sanhedrin weren't exceeding their authority. G-d had told them to legislate! Whatever direction that took the society in was therefore correct provided they didn't step outside existing law from Sinai. The people were bound by the Torah to follow their instructions, told not to deviate to the right or to the left.

They were to pass judgment based on the Law of Moses, not their own oral traditions. Their words could not supersede God's Torah. Again this does not help your case.

So, even if you think that the rabbis made it all up it's still binding because it's given authority by the Bible!

Shalom and G-d bless
~Hix~

I believe that you are misguided in this particular issue, and I have stated my reasons why.

Shlomo,
-Steve-o