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My question is, what is the sentiment today about this?
Modalism doesn't suggest any person of the Trinity is created.I just detailed the 3 distinct existences. Modalism believes the Son didn't exist before the virgin birth and the Spirit didn't exist before Pentecost. I do believe they have always existed. Your logic is a bit flawed, as water, ice, and steam are 3 distinct existences of H2O. I don't know how else to explain it, but I do not follow modalism. I believe when God walked in the Garden of Eden, that was Jesus. When David begged God not to take away His holy Spirit, that was the Holy Spirit he was speaking of.
I'm going off the official RCC position on what the Filioque means, which dates from the Middle Ages and continues today, which is that the Father and Son are one alpha point for the Spirit's procession.The position of Augustine and Aquinas was to insist that the ultimate 'alpha point' or origin for the Holy Spirit is the Father, even when it may be said there are places in Scripture where it is reasonable to conclude in the immediate instance that the Holy Spirit has proceeded from the Son.
Any other position here seems to undo the Monarchical Position of the Father in which is seen the essence of the Unity of the Most Holy Trinity.
If I drink wine from the bottle, I may say that the wine has proceeded from the bottle. If I drink wine from the glass, I may say that the wine has proceeded from the glass, though I must also acknowledge that in the first instance the wine proceeded from the bottle.
Sadly I suspect that is true, we stand up on Sunday and say the words in the book. I think that Christians should be concerned to know what they are saying they believe. I know when I went through the creed again, and explored this matter I concluded that the Filioque is an inappropriate insertion (perhaps well intentioned) however it is a really inelegant expression of processional theology, and certainly does not give a proper voice to what Augustine was saying. I now take a breath while the congregation filioques away.
I don't think anyone here is disputing those two assertions..
Regardless of question of who was the author of the Athanasian Creed, I accept its thoughts regarding the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit.
ATHANASIAN CREED
"The Father uncreated, the Son uncreated, and the Holy Spirit uncreated."
"The Father eternal, the Son eternal, and the Holy Spirit eternal."
It's not a question of whether the Spirit is Christ's, since all things that are the Father's are also the Son's. It's a question of whether or not the Holy Spirit's existence is contingent solely on the Father.Ephesians 2:18-22
18 For through him (Christ) we both have access to the Father by one Spirit.
19 Consequently, you are no longer foreigners and strangers, but fellow citizens with God’s people and also members of his household, 20 built on the foundation of the apostles and prophets, with Christ Jesus himself as the chief cornerstone. 21 In him the whole building is joined together and rises to become a holy temple in the Lord. 22 And in him you too are being built together to become a dwelling in which God lives by his Spirit.
To clarify my position, I'm not disputing anything.I don't think anyone here is disputing those two assertions.
It's a question of whether or not the Holy Spirit's existence is contingent solely on the Father
It's not a matter of the Spirit being created. The Spirit always existed, because the Father always endowed the Spirit's existence. Just like the Son always existed, because the Father always begot the Son.The Holy Spirit's existence is eternal, and thus his existence is equal to that of the Father and the Son.
ATHANASIAN CREED
"The Father uncreated, the Son uncreated, and the Holy Spirit uncreated."
A quick history lesson for those of you not familiar with it: in the Middle Ages, the Pope added what is called the "Filioque" to the Nicene Creed, which is the clause that says "and from the Son" regarding the procession of the Holy Spirit. This caused a major controversy, since in the West it was intended to mean that the Holy Spirit's existence is endowed from the Father and the Son as one principle (this is still the position of the Catholic Church). This directly conflicted with Eastern theology, which says that the Father is sole source of the Trinity, the will is furnished by the Father alone, and the existences of the Son and the Holy Spirit are furnished by the Father alone. Thus, the Father's hypostasis, alone, is the bedrock of the entire Trinity. This controversy contributed greatly to the schism (the main issue causing the schism was the Pope's authority over the Church, although this is not the thread to discuss that).
My question is, what is the sentiment today about this? Particularly among Christians who are neither Catholic nor Orthodox. Is the Father alone generally seen as the source of the entire Trinity?
All three persons have always been because the Son's and the Spirit's existences were always endowed from the Father.The Christian concept of the Trinity can be easily understood when you recognize all three persons as God, but each with a different task. The Father is the originator of the plan; Jesus is the executor of the plan, and the Holy Spirit is the revealer of the plan to man. There is subordination within the Trinity. Scripture shows the Holy Spirit is subordinate to the Father and the Son, and the Son is subordinate to the Father - Jn 14:16, 14:26, 16:13-14. Lk 22:42, Jn 5:36, 1 Jn 4:14.
The plural noun - Hebrew "Elohim" meaning us, is used in Gen 1:26,3:22, 11:7, Is 6:8, Matt 3:16-17, 2 Cor 13:14. The Father is the ultimate source or cause of the universe 1 Cor 8:6, Rev 4:11; salvation Jn 3:16-17, divine revelation Rev 1:1, Jesus' human works Jn 5:17 and 14:10.
I don't believe anyone can say the Father is the sole source when all three persons have always been. I was raised a catholic but departed 40+ years ago over false doctrines from my upbringing.
It suggests they are basically modes of God, which means they all can't be at the same time. If I follow modalism, how can I believe David was praying to the Father and asking Him not to take away the Holy Spirit from him?Modalism doesn't suggest any person of the Trinity is created.
Consider when Christ was baptized and the Holy Spirit descended like a dove and the Father said He was pleased. They are 3 parts, contingent on the one. 2/3 of one is not one. There has to be 3. Together they make one.It's not a question of whether the Spirit is Christ's, since all things that are the Father's are also the Son's. It's a question of whether or not the Holy Spirit's existence is contingent solely on the Father.
No, it doesn't suggest God cannot take three forms simultaneously.It suggests they are basically modes of God, which means they all can't be at the same time.
You're saying they're each 1/3 of infinity?Consider when Christ was baptized and the Holy Spirit descended like a dove and the Father said He was pleased. They are 3 parts, contingent on the one. 2/3 of one is not one. There has to be 3. Together they make one.
.The Spirit always existed
If the Son's existence isn't contingent upon the Father's, then how could he be begotten of the Father? And if the Spirit's existence isn't contingent upon the Father's, then how could come from out of the Father?.
The Scriptures describe the different roles of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit.
Neither the Father, nor the Holy Spirit died for the sins of mankind. The Son did. This is obvious and explanatory as only through his incarnation could he even become subject to death.
The Three take different roles in respect to man's salvation.
But the Holy Spirit's existence is no more contingent on the Father, than the Father's existence is contingent on the Holy Spirit. Or any other way you might express it.
All Three are equal, self-existent and eternal.
If the Son's existence isn't contingent upon the Father's, then how could he be begotten of the Father?
Hebrews 1:6The Son existed in the person of Jesus Christ, born of Mary, crucified, died, was buried, and raised again to life. He (Jesus) existed prior to this -- as the Pre-incarnate Christ. The selfsame person, always God, and now also man.
Please quote a verse from Scripture regarding 'the Son's existence being contingent upon the Fathers' to allow me to comment further.
Also, Proverbs 8:22-31 is talking about the pre-incarnate Word, and it shows a clear contingency of existence, while at the same time showing the Word always existed.
1 Corinthians 2:7-8All of Proverbs 8 refers to 'Wisdom.' Wisdom here is personified. It is not talking about the 'pre-incarnate Word.'
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