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The meaning of "Uriah"

tonychanyt

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Uriah meant "light of God". More precisely, it meant "Yahweh is my light"

"Ur" = light
"i" = my
"Yah" = Yahweh

His name reflected his noble character. Ironically, he was kept in the dark about David's affair with his wife, and David's evil plot against his life.

Psalm 27:

1 The Lord is my light and my salvation—whom shall I fear?
"Uriel" meant "God is my light".

God judged David for his sins against the righteous Uriah (2 Samuel 12:1-12).
 

Rose_bud

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Uriah meant "light of God". More precisely, it meant "Yahweh is my light"

"Ur" = light
"i" = my
"Yah" = Yahweh

His name reflected his noble character. Ironically, he was kept in the dark about David's affair with his wife, and David's evil plot against his life.

Psalm 27:


"Uriel" meant "God is my light".

God judged David for his sins against the righteous Uriah (2 Samuel 12:1-12).
I don't believe this was an affair, affair implies consent. I read this text as a sexual abuse of power by the king. Especially when considering the prophets words when he corrected David. Nathan speaks of an ewe lamb, resembling innocence in reference to Bathsheba. God also judged David for his sins against Bathsheba, otherwise he would have no reason to repent towards her or to ensure her son sits on the throne.
 
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KevinT

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Uriah meant "light of God". More precisely, it meant "Yahweh is my light"

"Ur" = light
"i" = my
"Yah" = Yahweh

Uriah was mentioned to be a Hittite, as in not an Israelite. I wonder if he grew up in the Hebrew community and thus got a Hebrew name? Here is a Wikipedia article that discusses Hittites.

KT
 
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RDKirk

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I don't believe this was an affair, affair implies consent. I read this text as a sexual abuse of power by the king. Especially when considering the prophets words when he corrected David. Nathan speaks of an ewe lamb, resembling innocence in reference to Bathsheba. God also judged David for his sins against Bathsheba, otherwise he would have no reason to repent towards her or to ensure her son sits on the throne.
Yes, indeed. When the power is this unbalanced, "consent" is not a consideration. The actual power accorded to a king under the Law wasn't fully determined yet by generations of lawyers and scribes...a woman like Bathsheba wouldn't know exactly what the king was permitted to do.

And, yes, it's important to note that Bathsheba is characterized as a lamb, not a "backsliding heifer."
 
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Diamond72

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When the power is this unbalanced, "consent" is not a consideration.
A careful look at the biblical account clearly condemns David’s behavior, but more aggressive interpretations are not supported.

The most common error in Bible interpretation is eisegesis: “reading in” facts or ideas. This is the opposite of exegesis: reading what the actual text says.

I know there is a lot of sexual abuse and this discussion is a reflection of that.
 
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Rose_bud

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Yes, indeed. When the power is this unbalanced, "consent" is not a consideration. The actual power accorded to a king under the Law wasn't fully determined yet by generations of lawyers and scribes...a woman like Bathsheba wouldn't know exactly what the king was permitted to do.

And, yes, it's important to note that Bathsheba is characterized as a lamb, not a "backsliding heifer."
Yes, although passages like Deuteronomy 17:14-20 provided a guideline and 1 Samuel 8 warned of the oppressive nature of an earthly kings reign. The full application of this may not have been fully realised.
 
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