The doctrine of imputation is hypocritical

JIMINZ said:

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Thank you, but what I am looking for is, "the righteousness of Christ is imputed to them that believe in him,"

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That's what those verses mean... so I'm unclear as to what your looking for?

Hazelelponi said:

That's rather what those verses mean... so I'm unclear as to what your looking for?

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What is written in the Red, haven't you noticed, the New Testament doesn't say anywhere (The Righteousness of Christ) and that means we are misunderstanding something.

It's not as simple as saying, well it essentially says (means) the same thing, that is assuming Scripture says something it clearly does not say, and when we do that, we tend to get lax in those things Scripture does actually say.

Therefore if the true rendering is not (The Righteousness of Christ) then what does it actually say, and then how is it going to be Interpreted?

In matters concerning Belief, especially Belief of Doctrine, I do not want a Doctrine of ambiguity because, it is assumed Scripture says something, that in essence is what is called DOGMA and to be honest, I detest Dogma in Christianity.

In Doctrine, (Close enough, isn't good enough!)

JIMINZ said:

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What is written in the Red, haven't you noticed, the New Testament doesn't say anywhere (The Righteousness of Christ) and that means were are misunderstanding something.

It's not as simple as saying, well it essentially says (means) the same thing, that is assuming Scripture says something it clearly does not say, and when we do that, we tend to get lax in those things Scripture does actually say.

Therefore if the true rendering is not (The Righteousness of Christ) then what does it actually say, and then how is it going to be Interpreted?

In matters concerning Belief, especially Belief of Doctrine, I do not want a Doctrine of ambiguity because, it is assumed Scripture says something, that in essence is what is called DOGMA and to be honest, I detest Dogma in Christianity.

In Doctrine, (Close enough, isn't good enough!)

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I'm not seeing how the righteousness of God is any different than the righteousness of Christ?

It's not really like an oops there, it's the same thing...

If you need a word for word without needing to know or understand the meaning of words or basic concepts (like the righteousness of God verses the righteousness of Christ) then you'll probably not get one.

Sometimes, often even, teachers will use their own words to explain biblical concepts, and if it doesn't turn scripture on its head, but rather makes clear and plain the meaning of scripture it's perfectly fine to do.

Can you explain to me why you think this is not biblical?

JIMINZ said:

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What is written in the Red, haven't you noticed, the New Testament doesn't say anywhere (The Righteousness of Christ) and that means we are misunderstanding something.

It's not as simple as saying, well it essentially says (means) the same thing, that is assuming Scripture says something it clearly does not say, and when we do that, we tend to get lax in those things Scripture does actually say.

Therefore if the true rendering is not (The Righteousness of Christ) then what does it actually say, and then how is it going to be Interpreted?

In matters concerning Belief, especially Belief of Doctrine, I do not want a Doctrine of ambiguity because, it is assumed Scripture says something, that in essence is what is called DOGMA and to be honest, I detest Dogma in Christianity.

In Doctrine, (Close enough, isn't good enough!)

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The righteousness of God isn't close enough? Loads of theological terms are not directly in Scripture. Like the word "Trinity", "sola scriptura", "inerrant", "hypostatic union" and so on.

Apologetic_Warrior said:

The righteousness of God isn't close enough? Loads of theological terms are not directly in Scripture. Like the word "Trinity", "sola scriptura", "inerrant", "hypostatic union" and so on.

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Scripture does say.

2Co. 5:21
For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.

So you see, it's the (Righteousness of God) in Christ, not (The Righteousness of Christ), there is a big difference you know.

It's a Misinterpretation, and we all know, that Misinterpretations lead to error.

Your right, things like the Trinity aren't there, they are things we understand to be true because of the preponderance of Scripture pointing in that direction, but they are on a different level of understanding than believing Scripture says something when it does not.

Where are the Verses which can be used in order to bolster this statement,
"The Righteousness of Christ is imputed to Believers", if Scripture doesn't say it itself?

By the way, "that we might be made the righteousness of God in him"
is not a term, it is a fact, (Reality)

JIMINZ said:

Can you give me the verse for that statement?

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I see another poster already gave you the Romans 3:21-25. Which is quite clear. But there are others:


2 Corinthians 5: NASB
21He made Him who knew no sin to be sin on our behalf, so that we might become the righteousness of God in Him.

Romans 4: NASB
22Therefore IT WAS ALSO CREDITED TO HIM ASRIGHTEOUSNESS. 23Now not for his sake only was it written that it was credited to him,24but for our sake also, to whom it will be credited, as those who believe in Him who raised Jesus our Lord from the dead,25He who was delivered over because of our transgressions, and was raised because of our justification.

Romans 5: NASB
19For as through the one man’s disobedience the many were made sinners, even so through the obedience of the One the many will be made righteous. 20The Law came in so that the transgression would increase; but where sin increased, grace abounded all the more, 21so that, as sin reigned in death, even so grace would reign through righteousness to eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.

JIMINZ said:

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Scripture does say.

2Co. 5:21
For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.

So you see, it's the (Righteousness of God) in Christ, not (The Righteousness of Christ), there is a big difference you know.

It's a Misinterpretation, and we all know, that Misinterpretations lead to error.

Your right, things like the Trinity aren't there, they are things we understand to be true because of the preponderance of Scripture pointing in that direction, but they are on a different level of understanding than believing Scripture says something when it does not.

Where are the Verses which can be used in order to bolster this statement,
"The Righteousness of Christ is imputed to Believers", if Scripture doesn't say it itself?

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John 5:19 states that Jesus does only what He sees His Father doing.

John 14:9 says If you have seen me you have seen the Father

Romans 1:17 states that God's righteousness is revealed in the Gospel

As we know, the Gospel literally means "Good News" and biblically is the good news of the Kingdom of God, revealed in our salvation through Christ Jesus.

HE is the righteousness of God - Christ.

We believe, due to other biblical passages, in a triune God..

So it's not misleading to say the righteousness of Christ as synonymous to the righteousness of God.

This following quote will help with imputing..

In Romans 3:25 the Greek word hilasterionis used. It is the word employed by the LXX. translators in Exodus 25:17 and elsewhere as the equivalent for the Hebrew kapporeth , which means "covering," and is used of the lid of the ark of the covenant (Exodus 25:21; Exodus 30:6 ). This Greek word (hilasterion) came to denote not only the mercy-seat or lid of the ark, but also propitation or reconciliation by blood.

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https://www.biblestudytools.com/dictionary/propitiation/

JIMINZ said:

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Scripture does say.

2Co. 5:21
For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.

So you see, it's the (Righteousness of God) in Christ, not (The Righteousness of Christ), there is a big difference you know.

It's a Misinterpretation, and we all know, that Misinterpretations lead to error.

Your right, things like the Trinity aren't there, they are things we understand to be true because of the preponderance of Scripture pointing in that direction, but they are on a different level of understanding than believing Scripture says something when it does not.

Where are the Verses which can be used in order to bolster this statement,
"The Righteousness of Christ is imputed to Believers", if Scripture doesn't say it itself?

By the way, "that we might be made the righteousness of God in him"
is not a term, it is a fact, (Reality)

Click to expand...

The Divinity of Christ, His sinless life, His substitutional atonement, all lead to imputation of "the righteousness of Christ". One verse that comes to mind, is the one in the Gospel of John, where Christ states that He and the Father are "one". Which means in the context of imputation, He is the righteousness of God to all who believe, and by faith in Him, God declares...reckons a sinner as righteous before Him. When the Father looks upon us, He sees the Son and the righteousness of His innocent blood on us. Hope this sheds some light, God bless.

Apologetic_Warrior said:

The righteousness of God isn't close enough?

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I think @JIMINZ is making a distinction between the righteousness of God and the use of righteousness of Christ.

But that’s an exercise in semantics because we know Jesus Christ is the Divine Logos (John 1) and the fullness of Deity in bodily form (Colossians 2:9).

Apologetic_Warrior said:

The Divinity of Christ, His sinless life, His substitutional atonement, all lead to imputation of "the righteousness of Christ". One verse that comes to mind, is the one in the Gospel of John, where Christ states that He and the Father are "one". Which means in the context of imputation, He is the righteousness of God to all who believe, and by faith in Him, God declares...reckons a sinner as righteous before Him. When the Father looks upon us, He sees the Son and the righteousness of His innocent blood on us. Hope this sheds some light, God bless.

Click to expand...

Isaiah 53 shows this as well:

Isaiah 53: NASB

11As a result of the anguish of His soul,
He will see it and be satisfied;
By His knowledge the Righteous One,
My Servant, will justify the many,
As He will bear their iniquities.

Thanks for your response, I'm not trying to be a twit here, I'm only trying to make a point.

The point being, we as Christians say a lot of things which aren't necessarily the truth, not that they are lies, it's just that what we believe to be our understanding is not a clear as it could (should) be, if our statements to other Christians are ambiguous, what are they when we talk about the things of God with Non Believers.

redleghunter said:

I see another poster already gave you the Romans 3:21-25. Which is quite clear. But there are others:

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Ok, with these verses you have supplied, can we come to the conclusion that it truly is the Righteousness of Christ that is imputed to us for Salvation, that is my contention.

Rom 3:21-26
21) But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets;
22) Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference:
23) For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;
24) Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus:
25) Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God;
26) To declare, I say, at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus.

So we see,
1) It is Gods' Righteousness which is being spoken of in these verses not Jesus'
2) We are Justified by Gods' Grace, so that we are Redeemed through Christ.
3) Because God, has set Jesus as a Propitiation for sin.
4) To declare HIS Righteousness, (Who's Righteousness?) Gods'
5) Again who's Righteousness is being Declared, (Gods') why, so that GOD might be JUST, and the Justifier of them which believe in Jesus.

It is therefore Gods' Righteousness which has been spoke all the way through these verses, not The Righteousness of Christ.

redleghunter said:

2 Corinthians 5: NASB
21He made Him who knew no sin to be sin on our behalf, so that we might become the righteousness of God in Him.

Click to expand...

2Co 5:21
For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.

The point is once again, it is the Righteousness of God of of Jesus.

My contention is, with the correct understanding of just who's Righteousness is being spoken of, there is a different connotation, or understanding which is being made here. (It changes the dynamic of our understanding) in a deeper insight into the process of our Salvation.

redleghunter said:

Romans 4: NASB
22Therefore IT WAS ALSO CREDITED TO HIM ASRIGHTEOUSNESS. 23Now not for his sake only was it written that it was credited to him,24but for our sake also, to whom it will be credited, as those who believe in Him who raised Jesus our Lord from the dead,25He who was delivered over because of our transgressions, and was raised because of our justification.

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Rom 4:22-25
22) And therefore it was imputed to him for righteousness.
23) Now it was not written for his sake alone, that it was imputed to him;
24) But for us also, to whom it shall be imputed, if we believe on him that raised up Jesus our Lord from the dead;
25) Who was delivered for our offences, and was raised again for our justification.

Here is the dynamic I was speaking of.

These verses begin speaking about Abraham, to whom Righteousness was IMPUTED because, he believed God.

These things were written for us also, to whom Righteousness shall be IMPUTED, if we Believe in GOD who raised Jesus from the dead.

Again it's Gods' Righteousness which is spoke of not Jesus'

redleghunter said:

Romans 5: NASB
19For as through the one man’s disobedience the many were made sinners, even so through the obedience of the One the many will be made righteous. 20The Law came in so that the transgression would increase; but where sin increased, grace abounded all the more, 21so that, as sin reigned in death, even so grace would reign through righteousness to eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.

Click to expand...

Ok, starting two verses back in order to get the complete thought.

Rom 5:17-21
17) For if by one man's offence death reigned by one; much more they which receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness shall reign in life by one, Jesus Christ.)

I see this as being, (ABUNDANCE OF GRACE) = Salvation, and Righteousness, but whose Righteousness is it?

18) Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life.

What I see is, that by the Righteous act of Jesus, (Jesus Righteous act is, His Believing in Gods' Promise to Him) (God said go to earth and die, and I will raise you up again) Jesus had to believe what God said, the same way Abraham had to believe, and in doing so the free gift of Salvation came upon all men, unto OUR Innocence of life.

19) For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous.

Therefore by the Righteous act of Jesus, (His Believing God) we are made Righteous.

20) Moreover the law entered, that the offence might abound. But where sin abounded, grace did much more abound:

Gods' Grace covers a multitude of sins.

21) That as sin hath reigned unto death, even so might grace reign through righteousness unto eternal life by Jesus Christ our Lord.

Salvation might Reign through the Righteousness of God unto eternal life by the Righteous act of Jesus the Christ.

Remember, (WE ARE MADE the Righteousness of God) in Christ, whereas, the Righteousness of Christ is not Imputed to us.

The Righteousness of Christ is, His Believing God, and His Righteous Act is, His dying for sin.

redleghunter said:

I think @JIMINZ is making a distinction between the righteousness of God and the use of righteousness of Christ.

But that’s an exercise in semantics because we know Jesus Christ is the Divine Logos (John 1) and the fullness of Deity in bodily form (Colossians 2:9).

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I'm trying to make the distinction that, if you assume something to be true when it isn't, how may other things do you assume to be true?

If it really is the Righteousness of God then you have gained the truth, been given another piece of the puzzle, which will help you to see the over all picture more clearly.

Semantics, sure, if that is the way you want to look at it, you can discount it as Semantics.

But that is like saying God can Save anyone he pleases, Muslim, Buddhist it really doesn't matter if they don't believe in Jesus for forgiveness of sins, after all He's God....Did you ever hear that one, for the justification of a False Teaching?

And sure, we all know of the Trinity and God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Spirit, but they all do have different functions, we don't ever hear anyone saying the Righteousness of the Holy Spirit, after-all isn't He God as well as the other two?....It's a misunderstanding which causes error.

Or is that being Semantical again?

Everyone talks about wanting a closer walk with God and understanding more, then when the opportunity arises for you to have a deeper understanding and insight to the secret things of God, it's a Distinction, and Semantics.

You can reject everything I have said, it really doesn't matter to me because, I believe what I have written, I am open for God to show me things, and He has, mostly those things that He wants corrected, that His Children might come closer to Him in understanding.

If you take a journey, and your Compass is off 1 degree, how far from your desired destination will you be after you have traveled 3,000 miles?

Does it matter, sure it does, you have started a journey toward God, with every little thing you have in misunderstanding, or disbelief, you go further and further off your desired path, until your out in the middle of the desert and you cant for the life of you figure out why.

Take the words I have spoken and receive them as truth, they will help put you back on the right path.

JIMINZ said:

Thanks for your response, I'm not trying to be a twit here, I'm only trying to make a point.

The point being, we as Christians say a lot of things which aren't necessarily the truth, not that they are lies, it's just that what we believe to be our understanding is not a clear as it could (should) be, if our statements to other Christians are ambiguous, what are they when we talk about the things of God with Non Believers.



Ok, with these verses you have supplied, can we come to the conclusion that it truly is the Righteousness of Christ that is imputed to us for Salvation, that is my contention.

Rom 3:21-26
21) But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets;
22) Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference:
23) For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;
24) Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus:
25) Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God;
26) To declare, I say, at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus.

So we see,
1) It is Gods' Righteousness which is being spoken of in these verses not Jesus'
2) We are Justified by Gods' Grace, so that we are Redeemed through Christ.
3) Because God, has set Jesus as a Propitiation for sin.
4) To declare HIS Righteousness, (Who's Righteousness?) Gods'
5) Again who's Righteousness is being Declared, (Gods') why, so that GOD might be JUST, and the Justifier of them which believe in Jesus.

It is therefore Gods' Righteousness which has been spoke all the way through these verses, not The Righteousness of Christ.




2Co 5:21
For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.

The point is once again, it is the Righteousness of God of of Jesus.

My contention is, with the correct understanding of just who's Righteousness is being spoken of, there is a different connotation, or understanding which is being made here. (It changes the dynamic of our understanding) in a deeper insight into the process of our Salvation.




Rom 4:22-25
22) And therefore it was imputed to him for righteousness.
23) Now it was not written for his sake alone, that it was imputed to him;
24) But for us also, to whom it shall be imputed, if we believe on him that raised up Jesus our Lord from the dead;
25) Who was delivered for our offences, and was raised again for our justification.

Here is the dynamic I was speaking of.

These verses begin speaking about Abraham, to whom Righteousness was IMPUTED because, he believed God.

These things were written for us also, to whom Righteousness shall be IMPUTED, if we Believe in GOD who raised Jesus from the dead.

Again it's Gods' Righteousness which is spoke of not Jesus'




Ok, starting two verses back in order to get the complete thought.

Rom 5:17-21
17) For if by one man's offence death reigned by one; much more they which receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness shall reign in life by one, Jesus Christ.)

I see this as being, (ABUNDANCE OF GRACE) = Salvation, and Righteousness, but whose Righteousness is it?

18) Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life.

What I see is, that by the Righteous act of Jesus, (Jesus Righteous act is, His Believing in Gods' Promise to Him) (God said go to earth and die, and I will raise you up again) Jesus had to believe what God said, the same way Abraham had to believe, and in doing so the free gift of Salvation came upon all men, unto OUR Innocence of life.

19) For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous.

Therefore by the Righteous act of Jesus, (His Believing God) we are made Righteous.

20) Moreover the law entered, that the offence might abound. But where sin abounded, grace did much more abound:

Gods' Grace covers a multitude of sins.

21) That as sin hath reigned unto death, even so might grace reign through righteousness unto eternal life by Jesus Christ our Lord.

Salvation might Reign through the Righteousness of God unto eternal life by the Righteous act of Jesus the Christ.

Remember, (WE ARE MADE the Righteousness of God) in Christ, whereas, the Righteousness of Christ is not Imputed to us.

The Righteousness of Christ is, His Believing God, and His Righteous Act is, His dying for sin.

Click to expand...

Thanks for the clear response.

I have to ask...can you explain your Christology?

Apologetic_Warrior said:

The Divinity of Christ, His sinless life, His substitutional atonement, all lead to imputation of "the righteousness of Christ". One verse that comes to mind, is the one in the Gospel of John, where Christ states that He and the Father are "one". Which means in the context of imputation, He is the righteousness of God to all who believe, and by faith in Him, God declares...reckons a sinner as righteous before Him. When the Father looks upon us, He sees the Son and the righteousness of His innocent blood on us. Hope this sheds some light, God bless.

Click to expand...

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I fully understand what it is your saying and to a certain degree I agree with it.

That said, stop looking at God in the broad picture of His Being, His
Omniscient, Omnipresent, Omnipotent and get down to a closeness with God, We all understand the Greatness of who and what God is, in all of His Persons.

I'm just saying open your eyes, it doesn't say what you are saying it does, except in the way you have just said it to me, but what I am saying is this is what the Bible says about whose Righteousness it actually is.

Does Grace come from the Holy Spirit, Why, He is God isn't He, Did Jesus do the Miracles He did by His own power, or was it the Holy Spirit, Why, isn't Jesus God can't He do all things?

You see my point, sure Jesus is God so is the Holy Spirit, I will close with this thought, The Righteousness of Christ is not to be found in the Bible, but guess what is.

Rom. 1:17
For therein is the righteousness of God revealed from faith to faith: as it is written, The just shall live by faith.

Rom. 3:5
But if our unrighteousness commend the righteousness of God, what shall we say? Is God unrighteous who taketh vengeance? (I speak as a man)

Rom. 3:21
But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets;

Rom. 3:22
Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference:

Rom. 10:3
For they being ignorant of God's righteousness, and going about to establish their own righteousness, have not submitted themselves unto the righteousness of God.

2 Co. 5:21
For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.

Jas. 1:20
For the wrath of man worketh not the righteousness of God.

2 Pe. 1:1
Simon Peter, a servant and an apostle of Jesus Christ, to them that have obtained like precious faith with us through the righteousness of God and our Saviour Jesus Christ:

If this is here why isn't The Righteousness of Christ?

redleghunter said:

Thanks for the clear response.

I have to ask...can you explain your Christology?

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I find that to be a rather odd question..... But

Christology:

Christian reflection, teaching, and doctrine concerning Jesus of Nazareth. Christology is the part of theology that is concerned with the nature and work of Jesus, including such matters as the Incarnation, the Resurrection, and his human and divine natures and their relationship.

I am just a Christian reading, studying and questioning.

I just see what the Lord shows me, and I study it, nothing special.
I use a Bible KJV and Greek Interlinear, a Strongs Concordance, and a Vines Dictionary, no Commentaries or Histories and things like that.

I don't go into all of that in the blue, I'm more concerned with how things relate to me and my personal walk and relationship with God.

Does that answer your question?

Apologetic_Warrior said:

He is the righteousness of God to all who believe,

Click to expand...

2 Co 5:21
For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.

Rom 3:21,22
21) But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets;
22) Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference:

redleghunter said:

I think @JIMINZ is making a distinction between the righteousness of God and the use of righteousness of Christ.

But that’s an exercise in semantics because we know Jesus Christ is the Divine Logos (John 1) and the fullness of Deity in bodily form (Colossians 2:9).

Click to expand...

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Ok then, here is a question for you.

Mar. 13:32
But of that day and that hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels which are in heaven, neither the Son, but the Father.

Mat. 24:36
But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only.

Using your own reasoning.
Owing to the Fact Jesus is God as you say, why doesn't He know when He will return?

redleghunter said:

Isaiah 53 shows this as well:

Isaiah 53: NASB

11As a result of the anguish of His soul,
He will see it and be satisfied;
By His knowledge the Righteous One,
My Servant, will justify the many,
As He will bear their iniquities.

Click to expand...

.
It really doesn't, but what it does show is, we are Justified by Christ.

Gal. 2:17
But if, while we seek to be justified by Christ, we ourselves also are found sinners, is therefore Christ the minister of sin? God forbid.

But it does not show in any way, we are the Righteousness of Christ, not even that we have been Imputed with His Righteousness, because we have already become the Righteousness of God in Christ.

JIMINZ said:

.
I find that to be a rather odd question..... But

Christology:

Christian reflection, teaching, and doctrine concerning Jesus of Nazareth. Christology is the part of theology that is concerned with the nature and work of Jesus, including such matters as the Incarnation, the Resurrection, and his human and divine natures and their relationship.

I am just a Christian reading, studying and questioning.

I just see what the Lord shows me, and I study it, nothing special.
I use a Bible KJV and Greek Interlinear, a Strongs Concordance, and a Vines Dictionary, no Commentaries or Histories and things like that.

I don't go into all of that in the blue, I'm more concerned with how things relate to me and my personal walk and relationship with God.

Does that answer your question?

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Wasn't a poke. As you intelligently went through your examination of the texts a couple of questions came up on how you drew your conclusions.

First was the Person of Jesus Christ with two Natures; fully human and fully Divine (the Divine Logos). This popped in my head when another poster quoted John 14:9. So taking your very learned responses and making the distinction between Jesus and the righteousness of God and the fact The Divine Logos Son of God Jesus Christ is truly God and truly man led me to ask the Christology question.

Secondly, from my 'fox hole' knowing the Scriptural foundation that the Divine Logos is truly God, I see little issue with a site like Theopedia using the righteousness of Christ as Christ is the Divine Logos. Now, also seeing your point, perhaps they should just stick to what the actual Bible verses say, and leave the deeper theological understanding for another article on the Deity of Christ, Incarnation, Substitution and Atonement. But I think they did so because all of these doctrines are related to the Person of Jesus Christ truly God and truly man (human). God's righteousness is imputed by and through the Finished Work of the Son of God, Son of man Jesus Christ who is truly God and truly man.

JIMINZ said:

Owing to the Fact Jesus is God as you say, why doesn't He know when He will return?

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He humbled Himself.

Philippians 2: NASB
1Therefore if there is any encouragement in Christ, if there is any consolation of love, if there is any fellowship of the Spirit, if any affection and compassion, 2make my joy complete by being of the same mind, maintaining the same love, united in spirit, intent on one purpose. 3Do nothing from selfishness or empty conceit, but with humility of mind regard one another as more important than yourselves; 4do not merely look out for your own personal interests, but also for the interests of others. 5Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus, 6who, although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, 7but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men. 8Being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross. 9For this reason also, God highly exalted Him, and bestowed on Him the name which is above every name, 10so that at the name of Jesus EVERY KNEE WILL BOW, of those who are in heaven and on earth and under the earth, 11and that every tongue will confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.