The Council of jerusalem

Could someone help me out? Did the Council of Jerusalem abolish all Old Covenant law including the Ten Commandments or just parts of the ceremonial law such as the law of circumcision and dietary laws. If it abolished only ceremonial laws, how did obstaining from fornication get mixed up in the laws Gentiles were to abstain from just to keep from offending the Jews? I thought fornication was a universal moral law.

Well, as i understand it the Jews had certain laws that were "ceremonial" such as circumcision and dietary laws that were not necesarily "moral" like the law of love for God and one's fellow man. When the Gentiles were converted to the Christian faith, some of the Jewish Christians, the majority of which were Jews at the time, insisted that the Gentiles become like they were and keep all the "Law of Moses" including circumcision and the ceremonial law. As I understand it the Council of Jerusalem freed Gentiles from observing these "ceremonial laws" with the acception of some which ,if they did not observe, would be exceedingly offensive to the Jews. (circumcision, eating things strangled, things offered to idols, blood etc.) What I don't understand is how fornication got mixed up with those laws, presumably ceremonial, that the Gentiles were still going to keep simply to keep from offending the Jews. It seems to me that fornication would be "moral" rather than ceremonial.

well, I think fornication for the pagans were both. so the canons that came from that council had things that the Gentiles would have thought were ceremonial, like fornication due to sex cults, that they would have to stop

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Thanks, I guess that explains it as good as anything. I was just wondering why the council would mention just one moral law and leave all the others out. I guess the others were universally accepted by both Jew and Gentile.