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The beginning...as written

1whirlwind

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We have to rightly divide the word Assyrian. He is speaking to Jerusalem and He is warning us...history repeats itself.



Jeremiah 4:16-17 Make ye mention to the nations; behold, publish against Jerusalem, that watchers come from a far country, and give out their voice against the cities of Judah. As keepers of a field, are they against her round about; because she hath been rebellious against Me, saith the LORD.


4:22 For My people is foolish, they have not known Me; they are sottish children, and they have none understanding: they are wise to do evil, but to do good they have no knowledge.
Now notice how the tense changes. He is describing an historical event...
4:23-25 I beheld the earth, and, lo, it was without form, and void; and the heavens, and they had no light. I beheld the mountains, and, lo, they trembled, and all the hills moved lightly. I beheld, and, lo, there was no man, and all the birds of the heavens were fled. I beheld, and, lo, the fruitful place was a wilderness, and all the cities thereof were broken down at the presence of the LORD, and by His fierce anger.
He is telling us of His anger when we are foolish, when we don't know Him and do evil.

There was a previous age and there were cities and then Satan rebelled taking many souls with him so...there was the katalbo, the overthrow. We began anew...much, much later.


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This sounds too much like the lie of reincarnation.
 
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Assyrian

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You can see the reason for the change in tense, Jeremiah tells us "I beheld", he is recounting a vision, but it is still the same subject, the coming destruction of Jerusalem and Judah by the Babylonians. Look how the chapter continues on after Jeremiah's vision, Jer 4:27 For thus says the LORD, "The whole land shall be a desolation; yet I will not make a full end. For thus says the Lord, what God is saying is about the vision Jeremiah just had, yet God goes on to talk about what is coming in the immediate future, not tousands of years in the past. Look at verse 25 again, right in the middle of the vision you think describes between Gen 1:1 and 2. Jer 4:25 I looked, and behold, there was no man, and all the birds of the air had fled. The planet was completely destroyed after Satan's rebellion, utter devastation submerged in the depths of the sea. Where had the bird of the air fled to? They could flee the Babylonian invasion of Judah, but not the destruction of the planet.
 
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1whirlwind

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This sounds too much like the lie of reincarnation.



Reincarnation is a lie.


Hebrews 9:27 And as it is appointed unto men once to die, but after this the judgment:

We haven't been here in other bodies, dying and being reborn. We are in flesh bodies this one time. We all die one time. Some of us may never die again after we shed these flesh bodies but others will. Some will die the final death, that of their souls.

1 Corinthians 15:51-53 Behold, I shew you a mystery; We shall not all sleep, but we shall all be changed, In a moment, in the twinkling of an eye, at the last trump: for the trumpet shall sound, and the dead shall be raised incorruptible, and we shall be changed. For this corruptible must put on incorruption, and this mortal must put on immortality.
In the previous age we were just as we will be in the next age. In an incorruptible body and some of us will also be immortal.


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1whirlwind

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It isn't Jeremiah saying, "I beheld." It is God saying that.

Jeremiah 4:22-23 For My people is foolish, they have not known Me; they are sottish children, and they have none understanding: they are wise to do evil, but to do good they have no knowledge. I beheld the earth, and, lo, it was without form, and void; and the heavens, and they had no light.
Jeremiah didn't "beheld the earth," but God did.





It wasn't Jeremiah's vision. It was God's description of the past event. He goes from past tense (the historic event) to Jeremiah's time in [4:27] where He is describing the future in future tense....

4:27-29 For thus hath the LORD said, The whole land shall be desolate; yet will I not make a full end. For this shall the earth mourn, and the heavens above be black; because I have spoken it, I have purposed it, and will not repent, neither will I turn back from it. The whole city shall flee for the noise of the horsemen and bowmen; they shall go into thickets, and climb up upon the rocks: every city shall be forsaken, and not a man dwell therein.


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Oct 21, 2009
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Reincarnation is a lie.

Glad to read that is what you believe. But I have a question: where did this theological interpretation of pre-Adamite life or prior existence come from? Is this original with you, or are you building upon someone else's work?
 
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1whirlwind

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Sorry, I realized I missed this part.


First, we know that isn't speaking about the flood of Noah as man and birds were specifically mentioned. It was the first flood and it covered the earth. Second, the KJV tells us they were "birds of heaven," not birds of the air. What are the "birds of heaven?" Does heaven have literal birds? Maybe, I hope so but I don't think that is what is meant. Birds as used there are, "flying creatures." They returned to heaven. Think about that one for awhile...and try not to roll your eyes or laugh.





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1whirlwind

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Glad to read that is what you believe. But I have a question: where did this theological interpretation of pre-Adamite life or prior existence come from? Is this original with you, or are you building upon someone else's work?



Four or five years ago, when I was beginning to search, beginning to awaken, I heard a program on television discussing this. It answered so many questions I have had since I was a child that I was enthralled. Then I began to seriously study. It is all there.


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Assyrian

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It isn't Jeremiah saying, "I beheld." It is God saying that.
If it is, he is talking about himself in the the third person Jer 4:26 I looked, and behold, the fruitful land was a desert, and all its cities were laid in ruins before the LORD, before his fierce anger. All through the chapter the prophecies are introduced with "thus says the LORD" but here the vision is simply given in the first person. This is Jeremiah desribing a vision the Lord gave him of the coming destruction.

That is the same word erets translated land in verse 5, 7, 20, 27 and country in verse 16. Jeremiah is seeing a vision of the land of Judah.

It is not simply a description of what happened,
Jer 4:23 I looked on the earth, and behold...
24 I looked on the mountains, and behold...
25 I looked, and behold, there was no man...
26 I looked, and behold, the fruitful land ...

This is a description of a vision of what happened, he is describing seeing it. Of course the vision is given in the past tense. Jeremiah saw what was going to happen and described what he saw.
 
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1whirlwind

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He said, [4:22-23] For My people is foolish, they have not known Me; they are sottish children, and they have none understanding: they are wise to do evil, but to do good they have no knowledge. I beheld the earth......


That isn't Jeremiah speaking.


That is the same word erets translated land in verse 5, 7, 20, 27 and country in verse 16. Jeremiah is seeing a vision of the land of Judah.


It doesn't matter what the word for land is. That has no bearing on this. The point is Jeremiah didn't see the earth void and without form as described in [4:23] but God did.


Genesis 1:2 And the earth was without form, and void; and darkness was upon the face of the deep. And the Spirit of God moved upon the face of the waters.




No it isn't. It is our Father telling us of the first age.


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Assyrian

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You haven't addressed my point. Why is God speaking of himself in the third person?

You quote Jeremiah 4:22-23 but you run verse 22 straight into verse 23, just Jeremiah 4 is made up of different sections, different descriptions of the coming judgement given in different ways, direct thus says the Lord prophecies, messages to be declared, Jeremiah's anguish and questions, God's replies. Verse 22 is God's reply to Jeremiah's anguished question in verses 19-21 Jer 4:19 My anguish, my anguish! I writhe in pain!21 How long must I see the standard and hear the sound of the trumpet?

Verse 23 is a new section again, instead of God explaining to Jeremiah the reason for the judgement it is a vision of the destruction. What makes you think the vision is God speaking rather than Jeremiah describing what he saw? Right after the vision we go into a different description this time a another prophecy and it tells us that the 'I will' is God speaking again not Jeremiah.Jer 4:27 For thus says the LORD...
Basically, you are not 'rightly dividing the word of God', you are running sections together, confusing direct statements by God with Jeremiah's own description fo what he said and saw.

[/quote]It doesn't matter what the word for land is. That has no bearing on this.[/quote]Of course it does. You think Jeremiah is suddenly switching to talk about the earth at the beginning of Genesis when he has been describing Judah all along and is using the exact same word he used to describe the land of Judah .

Jeremiah could see anything God gave him a vision of and God gave him a vision of the land of Judah as empty and desolate. It is an allusion to formless and void in Genesis, it is the creator removing his hand of blessing from Judah as the Babylonians destroy the cities and drag the population off into exile. But the vision, while it alluded to Genesis, was describing the destruction of the land of Judah, as you can see clearly in next section. Jer 4:27 For thus says the LORD, "The whole land shall be a desolation; yet I will not make a full end. Jeremiah's vision was of the desolation of the land of Judah, which is what the Lord talk about in his explanation "For thus says the Lord", and the desolation though Jeremiah describes what he saw, past tense, was still in the future "The whole land shall be a desolation".

No it isn't. It is our Father telling us of the first age.
You need some evidence to back up you claim rather than just your say so. If it is a vision the past tense is irrelevant. And you never explained where the birds fled to if the planet was destroyed.
 
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1whirlwind

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You haven't addressed my point. Why is God speaking of himself in the third person?


There are Three....Father, Son and Holy Spirit.
John 10:30 I and My Father are One.

Luke 23:46 And when Jesus had cried with a loud voice, He said, Father, into Thy hands I commend My spirit: and having said thus, He gave up the ghost.

Matthew 26:42 He went away again the second time, and prayed, saying, O My Father, if this cup may not pass away from Me, except I drink it, thy will be done.

Although Jesus and God are One, Jesus spoke of His Father as a separate entity and not of Himself. Another example of the "third person"...
Zechariah 3:2 And the LORD said unto Satan, The LORD rebuke thee, O Satan; even the LORD that hath chosen Jerusalem rebuke thee: is not this a brand pluicked out of the fire?

You quote Jeremiah 4:22-23 but you run verse 22 straight into verse 23,


Yes, for there are times we must select the place for punctuation...commas, periods, etc. as well as division of verses when we search for clearer understanding. None of those were in the text but were placed by man. All men are prone to error.



I see [4:20] as the beginning of the Lord speaking in reply to Jeremiah's anguish."Suddenly are my tents spoiled, and my curtains in a moment." Tents are the bodies of God's children...they aren't Jeremiah's tents.





God speaking begins in verse 20 and continues through 26. He is describing the first earth age and why He destroyed it. In [27], at "For thus hath the Lord said," is Jeremiah speaking.


Basically, you are not 'rightly dividing the word of God', you are running sections together, confusing direct statements by God with Jeremiah's own description fo what he said and saw.



It isn't at all confusing to me. I clearly see the Lord speaking and Jeremiah speaking.




It isn't Jeremiah telling about the beginning...it is the Lord. He was there and He saw the world without form and void. He caused the world to be in that state. The land is the land is the land...no matter in the first age or in this age. Why would that change?





The Lord told Jeremiah and us what happened to the first age. In [4:27] the narrative changed to Jeremiah telling us what the Lord said about the first age. The Lord said it would be desolate and yet He wouldn't completely destroy it...and He didn't turn back from it. It will again happen...that is His warning to us. In [4:29] it is future.


You need some evidence to back up you claim rather than just your say so. If it is a vision the past tense is irrelevant. And you never explained where the birds fled to if the planet was destroyed.


The tense isn't at all irrelevant. And, it isn't my say-so for it is written. I explained where the "flying creatures" returned to in post #27.


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Greg1234

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That is the program I watched Greg. It's a very interesting series, especially since I am a firm believer in aliens. But you have to wade through the evolution of man, God being a space alien, we're from the DNA of alien beings, etc.



To me the young earth/old earth division doesnt affect Creationism itself. Just like the flood event. No matter what age the earth is for example, man is created. The division may arise through how Genesis is read. The first chapter speaks of the creation in 7 days but at the same time, the creation of the material man comes in the second chapter in Genesis who still may not be as deep set in the material as today.

At the fall, there would be another form of creation, preceded by a preparation. Genesis 3:16-19 may be alluding to man being created amenable to physical law with reproduction and sustenance highlighted. But man did not fall alone, and from there it begins to get a little more complicated, as different factors would have to be taken into consideration. The fossil record does shed some light on this particular aspect of creation, and lays the evidence for an age-like design sequence. This sequence would be accorded with the needed preparation in conjunction with the "level of flesh", as "all flesh is not the same". The day-age and young earth forms of creationism may be brought to some degree of congruence at this point.

The evolution thing however is seen as the pride and joy of science. It epitomizes the supposed supremacy over religion that many in the scientific community have inaccurately come to regard as a core truth. It will not be easy to let go, though the evidence for Creationism will keep coming forward.
 
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Assyrian

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There are rare hints at the Trinity in the OT, then again it could be because Jeremiah is speaking, this is after all a chapter where Jeremiah is describing a dialogue between himself and God discussing the coming Babylonian invasion. Which is more likely? That Jeremiah is speaking describing his vision, or that God decides to throw in one of those rare Trinitarian allusions, but one that doesn't actually tell us is it is Trinitrian, because it does not actually tell us God is speaking about God in the third person.

Yes, for there are times we must select the place for punctuation...commas, periods, etc. as well as division of verses when we search for clearer understanding. None of those were in the text but were placed by man. All men are prone to error.
I though you relied on the AV? Anyway, giving this is a completely new description on a completely new theme, a vision of destruction, rather than God's explanation of the reason, the new sentence and verse division are justified. Your effort to conflate the two sections isn't.

I see [4:20] as the beginning of the Lord speaking in reply to Jeremiah's anguish."Suddenly are my tents spoiled, and my curtains in a moment." Tents are the bodies of God's children...they aren't Jeremiah's tents.
You know that how? This isn't God saying he is writhing in anguish, that his intestines are in agony, and his heart beating wildly. God answers Jeremiah quite calmly, it is Jeremiah who is horrified at the coming destruction of his land.

God speaking begins in verse 20 and continues through 26. He is describing the first earth age and why He destroyed it. In [27], at "For thus hath the Lord said," is Jeremiah speaking.
Thus says the Lord is Jeremiah speaking to tell us what follows is what God said. Which leaves the vision of the coming destruction what Jeremiah saw.

It isn't at all confusing to me. I clearly see the Lord speaking and Jeremiah speaking.
So do you have any reason to think the vision was God speaking?

Because the chapter isn't about the coming destruction of the planet it is about the coming destruction of the land of Judah. You can say the land is the land is the land, but the fact is you are trying to make the vision speak of a completely different meaning of erets to the one used before the vision and after. Without a clear indication in the vision that the meaning of land is changed, the context tells us the vision is describing the destruction of Judah.

Which is it, was the Lord talking about the past or the future? Why did God given a vision of the destruction of the land, then say the whole land will be desolate, if he was talking about two completely differnt things? Why would he say he was talking about to completey different things? Why should we think he was talking about two completely different things when there isn't a hint in the text that he was?

The tense isn't at all irrelevant. And, it isn't my say-so for it is written.
The tenses are irrelevant for your claim the destruction happened in the past. What is written is that the vision was in the past, not that the events in the vision were in the past. Unfortunately this is your only evidence the destruction had already happened, that Jeremiah 4 was referering to a previous destruction rather than the coming Babylonian invasion the chapter is actually talking about. But as we have seen visions in the bible describe future events like the resurrection and the last judgement in the past tense, because the prophet is describing what he has see. Unless you want to claim the resurrection has already taken place too


Sorry.

'Bird of the heavens' and 'birds of the air' are the same phase in Hebrew, simply different translations. It is the same 'oph shamayim we read about God creating in Gen 1:20 and 2:19, who were taken on board the ark Gen 6:7 and is used to describe ordinary flying birds throughout the OT. There is nothing to suggest you fanciful interpretation, or you even more fanciful explanation of where they went. To the ordinary Hebrew reader these were simple feathered birds who had all fled the land, which of course they couldn't do if this really referred to a the destruction of the planet. There is something wrong whirlwind, when you have to resort to a series of bizarre explanations to justify an out of context Gap interpretation that the passage itself does not even hint at.
 
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1whirlwind

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Okay, let's dissect the chapter to see who is speaking and when....


Jeremiah 24:8 For this gird you with sackcloth, lament and howl: for the fierce anger of the LORD is not turned back from us.

"From us"...this is Jeremiah speaking and he continues....
24:10 Then said I, Ah, Lord GOD! surely thou hast greatly deceived this people and Jerusalem, saying, Ye shall have peace; whereas the sword reacheth unto the soul.
God answers...
24:11-12 At that time shall it be said to this people and to Jerusalem, A dry wind of the high places in the wilderness toward the daughter of My people, not to fan, nor to cleanse, Even a full wind from those places shall come unto Me: now also will I give sentence against them.
God gives sentence...not Jeremiah.
24:13 Behold, he shall come up as clouds, and his chariots shall be as a whirlwind: his horses are swifter than eagles. Woe unto us! for we are spoiled.
That was Jeremiah speaking for "we are spoiled" wouldn't include God.
24:16-17 Make ye mention to the nations; behold, publish against Jerusalem, that watchers come from a far country, and give out their voice against the cities of Judah. As keepers of a field, are they against her round about; because she hath been rebellious against Me, saith the LORD.
There the Lord is instructing Jeremiah on what to publish.
24:20-22 Destruction upon destruction is cried; for the whole land is spoiled: suddenly are My tents spoiled, and My curtains in a moment. How long shall I see the standard, and hear the sound of the trumpet? For My people is foolish, they have not known Me; they are sottish children, and they have none understanding: they are wise to do evil, but to do good they have no knowledge.

Tents are tabernacles...they are bodies that hold souls. Our tents don't belong to Jeremiah so we know this is the Lord speaking. That is further substantiated in the words "My people," and "not known Me." The Lord continues speaking, warning, giving an example of what happened before.....
24:23-26 I beheld the earth, and, lo, it was without form, and void; and the heavens, and they had no light. I beheld the mountains, and, lo, they trembled, and all the hills moved lightly. I beheld, and, lo, there was no man, and all the birds of the heavens were fled. I beheld, and, lo, the fruitful place was a wilderness, and all the cities thereof were broken down at the presence of the LORD, and by His fierce anger.
That is the Lord speaking...telling us that He "beheld the earth," and it is all in past tense...and yes, that has relevance. The state of the earth was exactly as described in the beginning of Genesis. Whether you agree that it was Jeremiah speaking or God speaking....it was about the previous age.
24:27-28 For thus hath the LORD said, The whole land shall be desolate; yet will I not make a full end. For this shall the earth mourn, and the heavens above be black; because I have spoken it, I have purposed it, and will not repent, neither will I turn back from it.
There Jeremiah is telling us what "the Lord said." It is prophesy, it is future. "shall be desolate, will I not make, shall the earth, heavens above be, etc." Future!



I do rely on the KJV. But, as I have stated previously, there are mistakes because it is man that translated. I'm not giving a new description. It has always been there. We just needed eyes to see.




You know that how? This isn't God saying he is writhing in anguish, that his intestines are in agony, and his heart beating wildly. God answers Jeremiah quite calmly, it is Jeremiah who is horrified at the coming destruction of his land.


I agree. [24:19] is Jeremiah speaking. As I said previously, God speaks in verse 20. Notice that the "My tents," are in verse 20.



Thus says the Lord is Jeremiah speaking to tell us what follows is what God said. Which leaves the vision of the coming destruction what Jeremiah saw.



When He tells us "I beheld" He is telling us what happened in the first earth age. He is using that example to warn of the future. When the king of Babylon took the Jews captive the earth wasn't "without form and void."



So do you have any reason to think the vision was God speaking?


Yes, I have given you the reasons.





History repeats and it repeats on the same earth. The ages change but not the earth.

1 Corinthians 10:11 Now all these things happened unto them for examples: and they are written for our admonition, upon whom the ends of the world are come.

Ecclesiastes 1:9 The thing that hath been, it is that which shall be; and that which is done is that which shall be done: and there is no new thing under the sun.



Both past and future. He used the destruction of the first age as an example of the future....a warning.





The earth itself is witness to the first age Assyrian. The Babylonian invasion could hardly account for the destruction named in those verses. We know the earth is ancient, we see signs of a global flood, we see signs of the katalbo, we are now finding evidence of ancient cities that were inhabited long, long before scientist credit man with having even yet evolved from apes much less come out of their caves. We, as Christians, know there is a following age...why are you so reluctant to recognize a previous age?





Did you try really, really hard not to laugh? I knew you couldn't help yourself. I get that all the time and yet....I've seen one so I know.





Yes, they were taken on board the ark and they were not literal birds.




We are not to be the "ordinary Hebrew reader" Assyrian. He asks more of us. We are His "peculiar people," His "jewels," and as such...teaches us more and expects more.



There is something wrong whirlwind, when you have to resort to a series of bizarre explanations to justify an out of context Gap interpretation that the passage itself does not even hint at.


It need not "hint" for it is plainly written. There are many things He teaches...we just have to be ready to hear. He knows when that time is.

Hebrews 5:11 Of whom we have many things to say, andhard to be uttered, seeing ye are dull of hearing.


We're on forums, such as this one, to increase our knowledge...to improve our hearing and vision.


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gluadys

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I followed you down this far, but I don't see why you assign these words to God rather than to Jeremiah. They sound to me more like Jeremiah describing what he saw in his vision of the future.

And yes, while the vision is of a future time, Jeremiah saw the vision in the past and would use the past tense to describe what he saw. It also makes the third person reference to the LORD more sensible.

I agree, Jeremiah is echoing Genesis 1:2 But that is just saying he is using the language of Gen. 1:2 to describe his own vision in which he has already seen (past tense) what will be (in the future). Authors do that sort of thing all the time, especially in poetry.​
 
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1whirlwind

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I followed you down this far, but I don't see why you assign these words to God rather than to Jeremiah. They sound to me more like Jeremiah describing what he saw in his vision of the future.


God is the Father. We are His children.

4:22 For My people is foolish, they have not known Me; they are sottish children, and they have none understanding: they are wise to do evil, but to do good they have no knowledge. (23) I beheld the earth, and, lo, it was without form, and void; and the heavens, and they had no light.....

We know the first part is God speaking. Whether or not we knew Jeremiah wouldn't make us "sottish." Knowing Jeremiah would have no consequence on our being wise or evil. Knowing God does, so...this is God speaking. He continues speaking when He tells us that "I beheld the earth." Jeremiah didn't behold the earth when it was without form and void.


And yes, while the vision is of a future time, Jeremiah saw the vision in the past and would use the past tense to describe what he saw. It also makes the third person reference to the LORD more sensible.



Why would Jeremiah go from speaking in the past tense and change to the future tense if he was speaking of the same event in the same passages?





It isn't poetry Gluadys. Our Father is telling us about the previous age and why it ended. It is a warning for the future.


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gluadys

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Agreed. But I don't see a reason to attribute the second part to God. I see the voice of Jeremiah resuming at v. 23 and continuing to "Thus says the LORD" at the beginning of v. 27

In vv. 23-26, Jeremiah is describing what he has seen will take place because "The whole land will be a desolation." v. 28

He has seen it prophetically although it is yet to happen. So he properly describes what he has seen in the past tense because of what will be. It is all one prophecy.





He continues speaking when He tells us that "I beheld the earth." Jeremiah didn't behold the earth when it was without form and void.

Yes, he did, in his prophetic vision of the destruction of Jerusalem.






Why would Jeremiah go from speaking in the past tense and change to the future tense if he was speaking of the same event in the same passages?


Because at the time of speaking, the vision has not been fulfilled yet. As a prophet he has seen it as if it has happened, but in real time it is still in the future. He saw (in the past) what would become of Jerusalem (in the future). His seeing is in the past, the actual destruction is in the future and the verb tenses match the experience.


It isn't poetry Gluadys.

Yes, it is. Any student of Hebrew can confirm that.

Our Father is telling us about the previous age and why it ended. It is a warning for the future.

So? He can do that in poetry, can't he?

Maybe you just don't take poetry as seriously as God does.
 
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1whirlwind

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Agreed. But I don't see a reason to attribute the second part to God. I see the voice of Jeremiah resuming at v. 23 and continuing to "Thus says the LORD" at the beginning of v. 27



In the preceeding verses it is "I beheld" four times and then.....
4:27-28 For thus hath the LORD said, The whole land shall be desolate; yet will I not make a full end. For this shall the earth mourn, and the heavens above be black; because I have spoken it, I have purposed it, and will not repent, neither will I turn back from it.
In other words, the Lord hath said, "I beheld...." four times. It was the Lord speaking.


In vv. 23-26, Jeremiah is describing what he has seen will take place because "The whole land will be a desolation." v. 28


The Lord speaking...
4:22 For My people is foolish, they have not known Me; they are sottish children, and they have none understanding: they are wise to do evil, but to do good they have no knowledge. (23-26) I beheld....I beheld....I beheld...I beheld...
And then Jeremiah speaks....
4:27 For thus hath the LORD said



He has seen it prophetically although it is yet to happen. So he properly describes what he has seen in the past tense because of what will be. It is all one prophecy.


If it was Jeremiah seeing the past and relaying what God had done it would have been written....For His people are foolish and have not known Him for He beheld the earth without form and void, He....



Yes, he did, in his prophetic vision of the destruction of Jerusalem.


If he was foretelling the destruction of Jerusalem (one city, not cities)then why didn't it happen as he foresaw it? When Jerusalem was taken captive was the earth without form and void? Were all the cities (plural) broken down by the fierce anger of God?
"all the cities thereof were broken down at the presence of the LORD, and by His fierce anger."


If that was Jeremiah's vision of the past for the future....it was never fulfilled.

Gluadys, I'll ask you the same question I asked Assyrian....
The earth itself is witness to the first age Assyrian. The Babylonian invasion could hardly account for the destruction named in those verses. We know the earth is ancient, we see signs of a global flood, we see signs of the katalbo, we are now finding evidence of ancient cities that were inhabited long, long before scientist credit man with having even yet evolved from apes much less come out of their caves. We, as Christians, know there is a following age...why are you so reluctant to recognize a previous age?



Yes, it is. Any student of Hebrew can confirm that.

So? He can do that in poetry, can't he?

Maybe you just don't take poetry as seriously as God does.


Our Father doesn't require us to be students of math, science or poetic readings in order to understand. Rather, we are to have eyes and ears as He teaches.
John 14:26 But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in My name, He shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you.
I wonder if "I have said," really means...John said what Jesus said, as you are attributing to the verses in Jeremiah?


God describing the destruction of the first age isn't poetry. It happened. God caused it.

The first age, from it's beginning to end (the katalbo/overthrow):
Genesis
1:1 In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth.
1:2 And the earth was without form, and void; and darkness was upon the face of the deep.
The second age from it's beginning:
1:2-3 And the Spirit of God moved upon the face of the waters. And God said, Let there be light: and there was light.

.
 
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gluadys

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If it was Jeremiah seeing the past and relaying what God had done it would have been written....For His people are foolish and have not known Him for He beheld the earth without form and void, He....

I don't think he was seeing the past. That assumption is embedded in gap theology. I think Jeremiah was seeing the future. But, of course, when he is writing, he has already seen the vision, so he reports what he saw.



It did happen as he foresaw it, for the people of Jerusalem and Judea, which is the focus of the prophecy.



Gluadys, I'll ask you the same question I asked Assyrian....
The earth itself is witness to the first age Assyrian.


No, it isn't. There is no indication in the geological record of the sort of destruction envisioned in gap theology. Still less of a recent "reconstruction".


God describing the destruction of the first age isn't poetry. It happened. God caused it.

Why would God's actual action mean his description of his action is not poetry? What makes you think real events cannot be described in a poem?
 
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