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THE APOCALYPSE OF PETER (1st - mid-2nd century) Questions.

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rakovsky

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Scholars commonly estimate the date for the Apocalypse of Peter to be from 90-150 AD and its place of writing to be Egypt. The Muratorian canon includes it, and it's accepted by Clement Alexandrine. Methodius of Olympus appears to refer to it as "Scriptures inspired by God".(Incommunion » pro-life) It survives in an incomplete Greek version and a full Ethiopian version, which is written later and differs somewhat. The Ethiopian version presents itself as written by Clement of Rome as an account by Peter to Clement of a vision.
I take it that the Greek version also presents itself as Clement's recording of Peter's account of his vision like the Ethiopian version does. But unfortunately we don't have the full Greek version and what we have doesn't mention Clement, so I can't prove that the text presents itself as written by Clement.

Roberts' and Donaldson's translation of the Greek "Akhmim" Fragment:
The Apocalypse of Peter (translation by Roberts-Donaldson)

M.R. James' Greek version with citations from Church fathers, the Ethiopic version with some of James' paraphrasing, and Book II of Christian Sybillines, which James thinks came from Apo.Peter:
The Apocalypse of Peter (translation by M. R. James)
The Apocrypal New Testament

Bart Ehrman's translation of Chapters 1-10,14-17 of the Ethiopic text:
Lost Scriptures

J.K. Elliot's edition (Following James, it abridges the ending after Chapter 17)
The Apocryphal New Testament
The Apocryphal New Testament


(Question 1) Scholars estimate that it was written at the earliest in about 90 AD because they find it closely similar to part of 4 Esdras. Due to the similarity, they propose that the Apocalypse of Peter used 4 Esdras and thus count the APocalypse of Peter as later than 4 Esdras. But couldn't the situation be the other way around and 4 Esdras incoporated the Apocalypse of Peter?
C. Muller writes that 4 Esdras
One reason that 4 Esdras could be the earlier document is because much of 4 Esdras is considered to be a Jewish nonChristian writing that was later interpolated by a Christian editor. For example, 4 Esdras 7:29 is often considered to have been written by a non-Christian because it doesn't appear to account for the Messiah's crucifixion when 4 Esdras 7 goes:

(Question 2) What do you think about the passage in the Apocalypse of Peter that implies that all sinners will be eventually be saved? Does this imply that their suffering in the afterlife would be something like the Catholic concept of purgatory?
The passage cites Jesus' words:
Wikipedia gives the following comment and cites God's words from the Apocalypse of Peter: Do God's words in the passage imply that Christians in Peter's lifetime hadn't heard about the passage's teaching of universal salvation?
If so, is does this passage attempt to give an explanation of why the text has a late date (in the late 1st - mid 2nd century) of publication and isn't in the Bible?

M.R. James quotes the passage as follows with his own comments in brackets:
He also comments: "The doctrine that sinners will be saved at last by the prayers of the righteous is, rather obscurely, enunciated in the Second Book of the Sibylline Oracles (a paraphrase, in this part, of the Apocalypse), and in the (Coptic) Apocalypse of Elias."

(Question 3) How do you explain Jesus' rebuke to Peter about making tents?
Having the complete Greek version might make things clearer. Put together, it sounds like Peter's vision is shown to him by Jesus before Jesus' Ascension. Peter sees two prophets shining in white near Jesus and he offers to make tents for them, but Jesus rebukes Peter, saying Satan made Peter suggest this. I found this confusing. It sounds to me that Jesus' explanation of the rebuke is that people sholdn't make an artificial physical temple made by hands for Jesus to live in. Instead of Peter making the tents, it looks like God or the angels then made three tents.
Here is the text from the Ethiopic version:
Peter's desire to make tents for the people does not seem bad. But the text seems to reject this as effectively being church buildings dedicated to them where they would physically live, and Jesus seems to be saying that they don't physically live in physical temples. Does this mean they only believed in having "house churches" for worship? I think instead he is just talking about heaven being a replacement for the houses where people lived on earth.

(Question 4) How do you explain that Peter in his vision sees angels and people with flesh in heaven?
One part where the Ethiopian text is complete though is at the end where apparently the Ascension occurs and right then looking into heaven he sees angels and people in flesh in heaven. This is confusing, because the General resurrection hadn't happened yet, so practically almost everyone's flesh should be still on earth then, except Eg. Enoch's and Jesus' and Elijah's, right?
Here is the relevant Ethiopic text:
 
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rakovsky

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For Question 1, Muller is referring to 4 Esdras 5:33, in which Esdras says:
Then I said, “Speak, my lord.” And he said to me, “Are you greatly disturbed in mind over Israel? Or do you love him more than his Maker does?
He finds this similar to Chapter 3 of the Apocalypse of Peter, in which Peter has this conversation with Christ:
Muller must see the passages as related: In the first, Esdras is concerned over Israel's penal afflictions and Uriel suggests in his reply that loves Israel even more than Uriel. In the passage in the Apocalypse of Peter, Peter is concerned over sinners' penal afflictions in Hell and Christ has a similar reaction. I see the passages as similar enough to be related.

Although I researched the topic, I couldn't find an explanation of why the passage in 4 Esdras would be the earlier one. My guess is that Muller takes this view because scholars commonly consider 4 Esdras to be a non-Christian Jewish text, and that therefore it wouldn't use a Christian text like this one. But in my mind, it hasn't been proven that 4 Esdras is necessarily non-Christian, since scholars believe that 4 Esdras has some Christian sections (its beginning and end chapters in particular).
 
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rakovsky

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As for Question 2 (What do you think of the passage on saving the sinners from Hell? Does this passage attempt to give an explanation of why the text has a late date of publication?)

P. Van Minnen writes in the anthology The Apocalypse of Peter: Minnen theorizes that the Greek fragment is a rewriting of the Ethiopic one "adding that believers would receive 'whomsoever they asked for' out of punishment' and that this rewriting "gave rise to the idea that the requests of believers would save some sinners out of punishment at the end of time (and not now, eg. through the conversion of the sinner prayed for)." Van Minnen takes the view that in the rewriting about the salvation of the sinners, the sinners are saved out of the suffering that they are already experiencing. She notes a similarity in the Sibylline Oracles, writing: "In Sibylline Oracles 2 the release of sinners from punishments they are already experiencing is spoken of (note the use of esauthis, 'later', in line 334)."

However, I think that Van Minnen is mistaken in thinking that the original text did not refer to the rescue of the condemned sinners or say that the believers would get "whomever" they asked for. This is because even if "whomever" is an addition and the text was just referring to the fulfillment of prayer requests by believers (since Van Minnen writes: "The first thing said about the future bliss of believers is that they will receive what they have asked for"), then we are still left with prayers like Peter's asking for the salvation of the sinners.

M.R. James summarizes an additional part of the Ethiopic text by saying:
Other editions of the Ethiopic text do not include this part quoted above about Universal Salvation that James says is in the Ethiopic text, because it is apparently a later addition. Van Minnen doesn't discuss this later edition, saying instead that rescuing the sinners from Hell is out of keeping with the Ethiopic version. So it looks like what is happening is that the scholars are discounting this part of the Ethiopic text with Universal Salvation as a later addition and not part of the real original text. Nonetheless the concept of the salvation of the sinners as a result of the prayers of the righteous that shows up in this later addition would go along with the part of the Greek Rainier fragment in Chapter 14 in which the righteous succeed in praying for the salvation of sinners.
Bart Ehrman, in his book Forgery and Counterforgery, notes that the punishments in the Apocalypse of Peter Per the Greek version, the sinners would be saved out of their current state of undergoing punishments, due to the prayers of the righteous.

Jason Pratt notes that the 3rd century Rainier fragment talks about the righteous successfully praying for the condemned sinners:
Pratt makes an interesting note that in Chapter 14 it talks about baptising the "peoples" in the Elysian Fields, because the Elysian Fields were a pagan concept. Since the peoples were undergoing baptism, it seems that the reference is to the salvation of non-Christian peoples, because Christians would already have been baptised.

In The Fate of the Dead: Studies on the Jewish and Christian Apocalypses, R. B. Bauckham prefers the Greek text of the Rainer fragment, which runs:
Bauckman explains:
In a footnote, Bauckman explains that the section that James quoted about Clement hiding the Apocalypse of Peter in a box is a later addition. He writes that in the Ethiopic manuscripts, the Apocalypse of Peter forms the first part of the work called "The Second Coming of Christ and the Resurrection of the Dead." He writes that the Apocalypse of Peter
 
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rakovsky

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For Question 3 (Why does Jesus rebuke Peter for suggesting making tents for Him, Moses, and Elijah?) I would answer: The account, in which Jesus rebukes Peter and opens Peter's eyes to see His tabernacle not made with hands, is based at least partly on the Gospels' story of the Transfiguration. There, Moses and Elijah talk to Jesus, and in Luke 9:33 records: "Then it happened, as they were parting from Him, that Peter said to Jesus, 'Master, it is good for us to be here; and let us make three tabernacles: one for You, one for Moses, and one for Elijah'—not knowing what he said." In the Gospel story, Jesus does not respond to Peter's offer to make booths or tabernacles.
The idea that God does not have a house made with human hands shows up in New Testament passages like Acts 7:48-50, which runs:
A related passage is 2 Cor. 5:1, which runs: "Now we know that if the earthly tent we live in is dismantled, we have a building from God, an eternal house in heaven, not built by human hands."
In the Ethiopic text of the Apocalypse of Peter, the disciples go up with Jesus to the Holy Mountain and see two shining men there, Moses and Elijah. The disciples ask about the other righteous fathers. Peter recounts:
The sense is that whereas Peter wanted to build tabernacles for Jesus, Moses, and Elijah, Peter's understanding had been shut by Satan, since the tabernacle or house of God (Christ being God), is not made by hands.

In his 1994 essay on the Apocalypse of Peter, Bauckman explains that the account is not actually of the Biblical Transfiguration, but rather a post-resurrection meeting with Moses and Elijah that is based on the Transfiguration story. Bauckman notes that following Peter's statement about the tabernacles, Jesus opens Peter's eyes and Peter sees the tabernacle not made by hands. Bauckman writes: "By this double revelation - of the tend not made with hands and of Jesus as God's son - the veil Satan has cast over Peter's mind is removed and he is shown the truth."
Further, the voice from heaven opens Peter's ears by revealing that Jesus is God's Son. Hence, He is a divine being whose house is not an earthly tabernacle.
Bauckham notes that both in the Apocalypse of Peter and in 2 Peter, Peter says that He saw the Transfiguration on the Holy Mountain. Bauckham theorizes that the "Holy Mountain" where they saw the vision was actually the Temple Mount, since its location, "Mount Zion", is the only place in the Old Testament called the "Holy Mountain". Bauckham interprets this as an instruction against building a physical, literal tabernacle for God on the Temple Mount after the destruction of the Second Temple.
 
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rakovsky

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Regarding Question 4 (How do you explain that Peter in his vision sees angels and people with flesh in heaven?), to understand this part of the apocalypse, R.B. Bauckman looks to Psalm 24, which is the "scripture" cited in the passage. The passage runs:

Bauckhman comments:
Bauckman is citing Matthew 27:52, which says: "And the graves were opened; and many bodies of the saints which slept arose". Among other patristic writers, Bauckman cites St. Ignatius' Epistle to the Magnesians, in which Ignatius asks rhetorically, "how shall we be able to live apart from Him, whose disciples the prophets themselves in the Spirit did wait for Him as their Teacher? And therefore He whom they rightly waited for, having come, raised them from the dead." Bauckman also cites Irenaeus' Fragment 26, wherein Irenaeus quotes the story of Elisha rescuing an iron axe out of water: "And the man of God [Elisha] said, Where did it fall? And he showed him the place. And he cut down a tree, and cast it in there, and the iron floated." (2 Kings 6:6) Irenaeus writes:
 
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