Scholars commonly estimate the date for the Apocalypse of Peter to be from 90-150 AD and its place of writing to be Egypt. The Muratorian canon includes it, and it's accepted by Clement Alexandrine. Methodius of Olympus appears to refer to it as "Scriptures inspired by God".(Incommunion » pro-life) It survives in an incomplete Greek version and a full Ethiopian version, which is written later and differs somewhat. The Ethiopian version presents itself as written by Clement of Rome as an account by Peter to Clement of a vision.
I take it that the Greek version also presents itself as Clement's recording of Peter's account of his vision like the Ethiopian version does. But unfortunately we don't have the full Greek version and what we have doesn't mention Clement, so I can't prove that the text presents itself as written by Clement.
Roberts' and Donaldson's translation of the Greek "Akhmim" Fragment:
The Apocalypse of Peter (translation by Roberts-Donaldson)
M.R. James' Greek version with citations from Church fathers, the Ethiopic version with some of James' paraphrasing, and Book II of Christian Sybillines, which James thinks came from Apo.Peter:
The Apocalypse of Peter (translation by M. R. James)
The Apocrypal New Testament
Bart Ehrman's translation of Chapters 1-10,14-17 of the Ethiopic text:
Lost Scriptures
J.K. Elliot's edition (Following James, it abridges the ending after Chapter 17)
The Apocryphal New Testament
The Apocryphal New Testament
(Question 1) Scholars estimate that it was written at the earliest in about 90 AD because they find it closely similar to part of 4 Esdras. Due to the similarity, they propose that the Apocalypse of Peter used 4 Esdras and thus count the APocalypse of Peter as later than 4 Esdras. But couldn't the situation be the other way around and 4 Esdras incoporated the Apocalypse of Peter?
C. Muller writes that 4 Esdras
(Question 2) What do you think about the passage in the Apocalypse of Peter that implies that all sinners will be eventually be saved? Does this imply that their suffering in the afterlife would be something like the Catholic concept of purgatory?
The passage cites Jesus' words:
If so, is does this passage attempt to give an explanation of why the text has a late date (in the late 1st - mid 2nd century) of publication and isn't in the Bible?
M.R. James quotes the passage as follows with his own comments in brackets:
(Question 3) How do you explain Jesus' rebuke to Peter about making tents?
Having the complete Greek version might make things clearer. Put together, it sounds like Peter's vision is shown to him by Jesus before Jesus' Ascension. Peter sees two prophets shining in white near Jesus and he offers to make tents for them, but Jesus rebukes Peter, saying Satan made Peter suggest this. I found this confusing. It sounds to me that Jesus' explanation of the rebuke is that people sholdn't make an artificial physical temple made by hands for Jesus to live in. Instead of Peter making the tents, it looks like God or the angels then made three tents.
Here is the text from the Ethiopic version:
(Question 4) How do you explain that Peter in his vision sees angels and people with flesh in heaven?
One part where the Ethiopian text is complete though is at the end where apparently the Ascension occurs and right then looking into heaven he sees angels and people in flesh in heaven. This is confusing, because the General resurrection hadn't happened yet, so practically almost everyone's flesh should be still on earth then, except Eg. Enoch's and Jesus' and Elijah's, right?
Here is the relevant Ethiopic text:
I take it that the Greek version also presents itself as Clement's recording of Peter's account of his vision like the Ethiopian version does. But unfortunately we don't have the full Greek version and what we have doesn't mention Clement, so I can't prove that the text presents itself as written by Clement.
Roberts' and Donaldson's translation of the Greek "Akhmim" Fragment:
The Apocalypse of Peter (translation by Roberts-Donaldson)
M.R. James' Greek version with citations from Church fathers, the Ethiopic version with some of James' paraphrasing, and Book II of Christian Sybillines, which James thinks came from Apo.Peter:
The Apocalypse of Peter (translation by M. R. James)
The Apocrypal New Testament
Bart Ehrman's translation of Chapters 1-10,14-17 of the Ethiopic text:
Lost Scriptures
J.K. Elliot's edition (Following James, it abridges the ending after Chapter 17)
The Apocryphal New Testament
The Apocryphal New Testament
(Question 1) Scholars estimate that it was written at the earliest in about 90 AD because they find it closely similar to part of 4 Esdras. Due to the similarity, they propose that the Apocalypse of Peter used 4 Esdras and thus count the APocalypse of Peter as later than 4 Esdras. But couldn't the situation be the other way around and 4 Esdras incoporated the Apocalypse of Peter?
C. Muller writes that 4 Esdras
One reason that 4 Esdras could be the earlier document is because much of 4 Esdras is considered to be a Jewish nonChristian writing that was later interpolated by a Christian editor. For example, 4 Esdras 7:29 is often considered to have been written by a non-Christian because it doesn't appear to account for the Messiah's crucifixion when 4 Esdras 7 goes:was probably used in the Apocalypse of Peter (cf. 4 Esdras 5.33 with c. 3), and 2 Peter...
The Apocalypse presumably came into being in Egypt (cf. Clement of Alexandria); the reference to the Egyptian worship of animals also points in this direction, in so far as this passage belongs to the original content. In this connection however we must refer above al to the ancient Egyptian Peter tradition (cf. esp. Berger, 275).
Apocalypse of Peter (Akhmim)
Everyone who has been delivered from the evils that I have foretold shall see my wonders. 28. For my son the Messiah[d] shall be revealed with those who are with him, and those who remain shall rejoice four hundred years. 29. After those years my son the Messiah shall die, and all who draw human breath.[e] 30. Then the world shall be turned back to primeval silence for seven days, as it was at the first beginnings, so that no one shall be left.
FOOTNOTES D and E:
D: Syriac Arabic 1: Ethiopian my Messiah; Arabic 2 the Messiah; Armenian the Messiah of God; Latin: my son Jesus
E: Armenian version: "all who have continued in faith and in patience"
(Question 2) What do you think about the passage in the Apocalypse of Peter that implies that all sinners will be eventually be saved? Does this imply that their suffering in the afterlife would be something like the Catholic concept of purgatory?
The passage cites Jesus' words:
Wikipedia gives the following comment and cites God's words from the Apocalypse of Peter:"My Father will give unto them all the life, the glory, and the kingdom that passeth not away, ... It is because of them that have believed in me that I am come. It is also because of them that have believed in me, that, at their word, I shall have pity on men... "
Do God's words in the passage imply that Christians in Peter's lifetime hadn't heard about the passage's teaching of universal salvation?Thus, sinners will finally be saved by the prayers of those in heaven. Peter then orders his son Clement not to speak of this revelation since God had told Peter to keep it secret:
[and God said]"... thou must not tell that which thou hearest unto the sinners lest they transgress the more, and sin."
Apocalypse of Peter - Wikipedia
If so, is does this passage attempt to give an explanation of why the text has a late date (in the late 1st - mid 2nd century) of publication and isn't in the Bible?
M.R. James quotes the passage as follows with his own comments in brackets:
He also comments: "The doctrine that sinners will be saved at last by the prayers of the righteous is, rather obscurely, enunciated in the Second Book of the Sibylline Oracles (a paraphrase, in this part, of the Apocalypse), and in the (Coptic) Apocalypse of Elias."'The Father hath committed all judgement unto the Son.'
[The destiny of sinners -their eternal doom- is more than Peter can endure: he appeals to Christ to have pity on them.]
And my Lord answered me and said to me: 'Hast thou understood that which I said unto thee before? It is permitted unto thee to know that concerning which thou askest: but thou must not tell that which thou hearest unto the sinners lest they transgress the more, and sin.'
[Peter weeps many hours, and is at last consoled by an answer which, though exceedingly diffuse and vague does seem to promise ultimate pardon for all:]
'My Father will give unto them all the life, the glory, and the kingdom that passeth not away,' . . . 'It is because of them that have believed in me that I am come. It is also because of them that have believed in me, that, at their word, I shall have pity on men.'
From: "The Apocryphal New Testament", M.R. James-Translation and Notes, 1924
(Question 3) How do you explain Jesus' rebuke to Peter about making tents?
Having the complete Greek version might make things clearer. Put together, it sounds like Peter's vision is shown to him by Jesus before Jesus' Ascension. Peter sees two prophets shining in white near Jesus and he offers to make tents for them, but Jesus rebukes Peter, saying Satan made Peter suggest this. I found this confusing. It sounds to me that Jesus' explanation of the rebuke is that people sholdn't make an artificial physical temple made by hands for Jesus to live in. Instead of Peter making the tents, it looks like God or the angels then made three tents.
Here is the text from the Ethiopic version:
Peter's desire to make tents for the people does not seem bad. But the text seems to reject this as effectively being church buildings dedicated to them where they would physically live, and Jesus seems to be saying that they don't physically live in physical temples. Does this mean they only believed in having "house churches" for worship? I think instead he is just talking about heaven being a replacement for the houses where people lived on earth.I said unto him: O my Lord, wilt thou that I make here three tabernacles, one for thee, and one for Moses, and one for Elias? And he said unto me in wrath: Satan maketh war against thee, and hath veiled thine understanding; and the good things of this world prevail against thee. Thine eyes therefore must be opened and thine ears unstopped that a tabernacle, not made with men's hands, which my heavenly Father hath made for me and for the elect. And we beheld it and were full of gladness.
(Question 4) How do you explain that Peter in his vision sees angels and people with flesh in heaven?
One part where the Ethiopian text is complete though is at the end where apparently the Ascension occurs and right then looking into heaven he sees angels and people in flesh in heaven. This is confusing, because the General resurrection hadn't happened yet, so practically almost everyone's flesh should be still on earth then, except Eg. Enoch's and Jesus' and Elijah's, right?
Here is the relevant Ethiopic text:
And behold, suddenly there came a voice from heaven, saying: This is my beloved Son in whom I am well pleased: my commandments. And then came a great and exceeding white cloud over our heads and bare away our Lord and Moses and Elias. And I trembled and was afraid: and we looked up and the heaven opened and we beheld men in the flesh, and they came and greeted our Lord and Moses and Elias and went into another heaven. And the word of the scripture was fulfilled: This is the generation that seeketh him and seeketh the face of the God of Jacob. And great fear and commotion was there in heaven and the angels pressed one upon another that the word of the scripture might be fulfilled which saith: Open the gates, ye princes.
Thereafter was the heaven shut, that had been open.
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